Is it permissible to shave the hair that is ABOVE the Adams apple but below the chin and jawline? I found this photo online for reference what area exactly I mean.

I read surah Al_Kahf verse 61 > But when they reached the junction of two seas they forgot their fish. and it took its way through the sea as in a tunnel. when I reached this above verse I analyze it as a portal where the fish alive and made a tunnel in sea for Prophet Musa. Like other miracle is it also a miracle if yes then can anyone replied me through the reference? and in which tafseer it has been discussed scientifically. I read it in tafseer ibn kathir.

Since it is not permissible to wipe over shoes that do not cover the ankle, if I go to the bathroom at school and complete Wudu (minus washing my feet), but then immediately enter the prayer room and wipe over my socks then, is that permissible?

As you possibly know, Aql/Aghl (intellect) is regarded as one of the sources of Fiqh in Islam. In Shia Islam, there are four sources of Fiqh: Qur'an, Sunnah, Ijmaa’ and Aql. (www.wikifeqh.ir ) But as much as I know, Aql is considered as a source which has higher position/place (in Shia's view) in comparison with the view of other Mazhabs (sects). So, my query is that: **What is the reason that Shia (Twelver Shia) hold Aql in a higher position in comparison with other sects?**

It was mentioned in a previous post clarifying a report by anas ibn malik ra in sunan al kubra al beyhaqi 2/320 that the slave girls of umar ra were serving with their hair uncovered and hitting their breasts and the confusion arose from the word تَضْرِبُ which was used to denote "strikes or hits" however this narration was reworded to تَضْطَرِبُ which denotes "shakes" changing the meaning to "serving with their hair uncovered and breasts shaking" in Book of Knowledge of Sunnah and Athar 3/146 (4071) authored by beyhaqi as well. What accounts for the difference in wording and which is the correct narration? initial post in question: https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/79569/umar-and-sex-slaves-hadiths Narrations: https://shamela.ws/book/2863/1247 and https://shamela.ws/book/7861/3655

I like to dance in front of the mirror alone. No one sees me dancing. I don’t put any music and just dance alone in front of the mirror to the music or song in my brain. Is it haram to do that? I know that dancing in front of non mahrams is haraam and if danced in front of mahrams, then there should be no any vulgar moves. But my question is that is it permissible to dance alone in front of the mirror with no music or songs but with a song inside my head or I’m singing it. That is my question.

Asalamu Alaykum. I play a roblox game called "Bee Swarm Simulator" and the overall theme of this game to me is halal. You just collect bees and go to fields and collect pollen from flowers and just collect bee types and upgrade gear. However, I have one concern with it. There is something called a "Wind shrine" in the game and from the name its a shrine. You dont actually worship it but you have to use it for quests and to use it you have to "offer" or just give a certain item to it in exchange for something else. I want to know if that is haram and shirk in anyway?

i am not sure if this question is Duplicate because i can't find the similar question so i will just ask. Currently I work far from my hometown, and in my work location, the local community begins Ramadhan one day earlier. However, in my hometown, Ramadhan begins the next day. Since I will be returning to my hometown to celebrate Eid al-Fitr, I am wondering if it is permissible for me to follow the Eid date in my hometown, meaning I would be adding an extra day to my fasting, as the local community in my work location may observe Eid a day earlier. Is it permissible in Islam to follow the earliest start of Ramadhan based on moon sighting or calculations in my work location, while also following the latest date for Eid al-Fitr in my hometown, even if this means being out of sync with the majority of my workplace local community?

> They also say that Khadijah sent a message to the Messenger of God > [Muhammad] inviting him to take her, meaning that they should marry. > She was a highly respected woman, and the whole of Quraysh [tribe] > would have been eager to marry her and would have spent much money to > that end had they aspired to it. She called her father to her house, > plied him with wine until he was drunk, slaughtered a cow, anointed > him with perfume and clothed him in a striped robe; then she sent for > the Messenger of God and his uncles and, when they came in, her father > married him to her. When her father recovered from his intoxication, > he said, “What is this meat, this perfume, and this garment?” She > replied, “You have married me to Muhammad b. ‘Abdallah.” “I have not > done so,” he said. “Would I do this, when the greatest men of Mecca > have asked for you and I have not agreed?” This is found somewhere in Tarikh, vol. 6, p. 49 but I do not know where.

Before asking my question I need to explain what made me ask it: Often when in a Muslim community a new revert/convert (in the cases I witnessed always female) came. The Muslims always gave (her) the advice to get married with a practicing Muslim of the other gender. So what if for some reasons one of this future spouses only agrees for this marriage to make a good deed, so the intention isn't to get married in the obvious way, but to help the other to learn as quick as possible more about Islam and how to practice things according this religion. So the purpose of this marriage is creating a legal mahram contact where both could be together. Note that I've often encountered marriages where the husband needed somebody to care for him, these were arranged marriages were a younger lady married an old for example blind man to take care from him. Apparently such marriages were "Building a family" isn't the main goal seem accepted. I guess if somewhere deep inside the idea of a future divorce exists this could be considered as nikah al-muta' by some scholars. And therefore this condition might not be accepted for nikah. But I assume that it is possible to get married without the intention of being physical whether or or not this can be placed in a marriage contract can be discussed. Also verses of the Qur'an and the prophetic traditions rather invite us to get married and have children, which is excluded by this condition! - So can such a condition be valid? - In any case: **What kinds of conditions are not valid for 'aqd an-nikah**? (ruling?) - Assuming this condition is valid, what if the spouses later want to be together as real spouses and have children must they divorce or re-write the 'aqd, what is the correct solution? ---------- At least this fatwa (only available in Arabic so far islamqa #220804 ) seems to say that delaying to have children (or pregnancy) can be a valid condition. Even if the fatwa says that the husband should convince his future wife to have children, as this is recommended by shari'a.

I am a muslim male. When I was a child a person older than me had anal sex with me several times. When I was a teenager I had oral sex with one of my cousins. Does that make me a fornicator? According to Quran 24:3 A fornicator does not marry except a fornicator. How can I get married?

A question that came up during a conversation with some friends. If a woman who has been divorced from her violent husband and through a court of law in the UAE is awarded a certain amount of money from the court, can her now son who apparently has become her guardian stop her from gaining access to what is rightfully hers? Could she go to court to overturn this action from her son?

In early Christian apocalyptic literature, particularly the treatise "A Discourse on the End of the World and on Antichrist" (often attributed to Pseudo-Hippolytus), the number 666 is sometimes interpreted not as a personal name, but as symbolizing the act of denying Christ. In the pseudo-Hippolytus tradition, 666 has been linked to the Greek word arnoume (ἀρνοῦμε), meaning “I deny,” using a particular isopsephic spelling variant. In Islamic eschatology, several narrations found in Sahih al-Bukhari and Sahih Muslim describe al-Masīḥ al-Dajjāl as having the letters “ك ف ر” (kāf–fā’–rā’)(disbeliever) written on his forehead, readable by every believer. My questions are: How do contemporary Muslim scholars respond to claims that this hadith may have been influenced by Greco-Christian apocalyptic writings? Also how the reassess the reliability and authenticity of this hadith from above concerning perspective?

I understand that according to classical fiqh, a master may sell a concubine after intercourse if she does not become pregnant and the waiting period (iddah) is observed. However, my question is different from merely asking about the permissibility of a single sale. What I am asking about is the following scenario: If a man intentionally structures repeated sales of the same woman — for example, selling her to another man for intercourse and then having her returned to him under a pretext (such as “discontent”), and repeating this process — such that the same original man repeatedly benefits from her sexual use, would this still be considered permissible? Does Islamic law consider the intent and overall structure in such a case? Would using valid sales contracts in this way be considered sinful if the purpose is to simulate prostitution through a legal loophole? Or returning based on “discontent” if that was untrue and done just to get around the ruling? “They were in effect prostituted; not by being owned by a single man who sold their sexual favors, but by being sold from client to client, and thus frequently changing owners. This solved the ban of prostitution, since it was allowed for a man to have sex with his slave. Since the principle of concubinage in Islam in Islamic Law allowed a man to have intercourse with his female slave, prostitution was also practiced by a pimp selling his female slave on the slave market to a client, who was allowed to have intercourse with her as her new owner; and who returned his ownership of her to her pimp on the pretext of discontent after intercourse, which was a legal and accepted method for prostitution in the Islamic world.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_prostitution Do not force your ˹slave˺ girls into prostitution for your own worldly gains while they wish to remain chaste. And if someone coerces them, then after such a coercion Allah is certainly All-Forgiving, Most Merciful ˹to them https://quran.com/an-nur/33

Sometimes after using toilet to unrinate and doing istinjaa I can feel drop along my leg or fall below my kness to the calf area. This make me very much confused if it is urine or water from drop after istinjaa. I have tried to sit down for a while after istanja but it happens. This causes a confusion if I am clean or not and that leads me to delaying of prayer. What should I do?

In the story of creation of Adam when Allah planned to create Adam, angles asked Allah are you creating a creation which will spread mischief in the world. I know their question was for the knowledge gain. But I'm questioning here the angles are made from light. They work that Allah commands them, was that incident was the command of Allah . Have they a brain to think?

Asking because someone said in a philosophy discussion "God should be able to defy logic". I am still learning about Islam and I hope that Allah may guide the person who disbelieves in Him. I want to know the answer to this question so that Allah, the Most Merciful, may increase me in knowledge.

From my research, it seems it is permissible to claim tax deductions for halal money that I have donated. But what about haram money like interests? I donate all interests I have earned to tax deductible islamic charities and would like to know if I should claim tax deductions on these donations?

There might be circumstances which result in me hitting men (non mehram) in anger or disgust. The contact of my hand with the man's face/arm/back is purely for hitting, but is that acceptable?

I prayed istikhara for marriage. Whether i should accept a marriage proposal or wait for someone who i have in mind, attracted to and really like (i don't speak and I'm not in contact with this person). I prayed istikhara for 3 days and on the fourth day a friend of mine told me that the parents of the guy who i like, were considering me for their son. Is that a sign that i should wait for this person?