I accidently gave a translation of a tafsir of a verse to a non muslim about 2 weeks ago. I believed it was OK at the time. Recently I found out that the translation was not 100% accurate. Nevertheless it did not contain any very haram our unislamic ideas. I gave this information to a non muslim who most likely is still non muslim so they won't have believed it. Am I obliged to correct the mistake for them? I read somewhere that you are obliged to correct mistakes if you giving a false hadith to someone but my case may be different, I am unsure

While in congregational salat ,after the imam has risen from the ruku position stating "sami Allahu li-man hamida " do the followers say Rabbana wa laykal hamd" out loud?

Is sand on witch a dog sits impure? if the sand gets on clothes or hands is it necessary to wash them.

Is it haram to upload a cartoon girl with a hijab as my profile picture?

I want to know how the Arabic language explains this verse Surah Isra verse 1 "Glory be to the One Who took His servant ˹Muḥammad˺ by night from the Sacred Mosque to the Farthest Mosque whose surroundings We have blessed, so that We may show him some of Our signs. Indeed, He alone is the All-Hearing, All-Seeing." Initially Allah swt refers to himself in the third person (glory be to the one who-) and then later refers to himself as We (the royal we in English) which switches to first person and then later addresses himself again in the third person saying "he is the all hearing" , Can anyone who speaks arabic explain this because in English it would be odd. The simplest conclusion would be to assume that in "we may show **him** -" and "indeed **he** is the all hearing" both are referring to same person , can someone explain why this is not the case

It is known that the earth and heavens have already been made in 6 days. The lowest heaven is our observable universe. In Quran 51:47, it is written “We built the universe with ˹great˺ might, and We are certainly expanding ˹it˺.” So my question is that if the heavens and earth have already been made, how is it that it’s still expanding. Same with earth, as it’s already been made how is it still undergoing changes today? Jazakallah Khair

In my scenario, a gas station is giving away scratch cards for filling fuel. If you fill for a certain amount, you get a scratch card for free with a chance to win something. You are not charged for the scratch card. In fact, the gas station themselves is losing money by doing this. They are doing this to attract customers to their station. The prices are car shampoo and cash. From my point of view this seems to be halal. What do you think?

I am engaged but I am not sure if I want to get married to him. I heard that *Istikhara* cannot be preformed after a decision had been made: Is this true? Or can I still perform it and get guidance in making my decision?

**"....***As for the resemblance of the child to its parents: If a man has sexual intercourse with his wife and gets discharge first, the child will resemble the father, and if the woman gets discha***rge first, the child will resemble her. ...."** Reference : Sahih al-Bukhari 3329 In-book reference : Book 60, Hadith 4 That would mean that if the man had an orgasm first, the child would resemble the man. But that doesn't make sense, scientifically, it doesn't make any difference who comes first.

I have read that a Muslim is prohibited from swearing an oath of allegiance to a secular power, e.g., the government of the United States, by specific language in the Quran. On-line references which I have checked seem to be silent on this issue. Is there a definitive answer?

I'm in a haram relationship with a girl since 1 year and now we wanna make it halal but our parents won't accept because we are not enough aged for getting married. But we love each other so much and we can't live without each other and we got really close to each other. So now my question is can I marry her without her guardian's permission if I can then I'll continue our relationship by making it halal and after getting enough aged we would got married fully from the families willing too. I really hope you would answer my question.

We know that drawing pictures of animate creatures is prohibited in Islam. The following hadeeth are very explicit. > Aishah (May Allah be pleased with her) said: The Messenger of Allah (sallallaahu alayhi wa sallam) visited me after returning from a journey, and I had a shelf with a thin cloth curtain hanging over it and on which there were portraits. When he saw it, the colour of his face changed (because of anger) and he said, "O Aishah! The most grievous torment from Allah on the Day of Resurrection will be for those who imitate (Allah) in the act of His creation.' Aishah said: We tore it into pieces and made a cushion or two cushions out of that. [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]. > > Ibn Umar (May Allah be pleased with them) said: The Messenger of Allah (sallallaahu alayhi wa sallam) said: Those who draw pictures will be punished on the Day of Resurrection; and it will be said to them: 'Breathe soul into what you have created.' [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]. > > Ibn Abbas (May Allah be pleased with them) said: I heard the Messenger of Allah (sallallaahu ’alayhi wa sallam) saying, "Every painter will go to Hell, and for every portrait he has made, there will be appointed one who will chastise him in the Hell.'" Ibn Abbas (May Allah be pleased with them) said: If you have to do it, draw pictures of trees and other inanimate things. [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]. However, is one allowed to draw images of humans and animals without drawing their eyes?

The alleged error is that the quran refers to that semen creates the embryo but it is the sperm cells and not the semen itself, 1 sperm cell + ovum = embryo not semen+ovum sense semen is a lot of spermcells How can this be explained ? The author of the Qur'an describes the formation of a human embryo from fluids emanating from the man (and possibly also of the woman). This reflects the contemporary, but incorrect, view that the embryo is initially formed out of semen stored in the womb. In fact, semen is the vehicle for the sperm cells, one of which fuses with a woman's ovum in her fallopian tube, and the resulting cell divides and travels back into the womb for implantation. While English translations mention a "drop of seed", or "drop of sperm", the Arabic word in question literally means a small amount of liquid, a euphemism for semen.

The 4th verse of Surah al-Yusuf has two verbs رَاَیتُ which means I saw: > اِذ قالَ یوسُفُ لِأَبیهِ یا اَبَتی إِنّی **رَأَیتُ** اَحَدَ عَشَرَ کَوکَبا وَالشَّمسَ وَالقَمَرَ **رَأَیتُ**هُم لی ساجِدین Translation: When Joseph told his father, oh my father! I just saw eleven stars and the Sun and the Moon bowed down to me. Why is there an excessive رَأَیتُ here?

We know that when we speak about more than one of a thing in Arabic we should pluralize the noun just like in English. For example, three houses (ثلاثة منازل instead of ثلاثة منزل). But in 12:4 (Surah al-Yusuf, verse 4) we have احد عشر کوکب instead of احد عشر کواکب: > اِذ قالَ یوسُفُ لِأبیهِ یا اَبَتی إنّی رَأیتُ اَحَدَ عَشَرَ کَوکَبا وَ الشَّمسَ وَ القَمَرَ رَأیتُهُم لی ساجِدین Why does that not follow the rule?

Is it permissible to make dua during a sunnah sajdah (i.e. one of the 15) in the Qu'ran? I remember reading somewhere that it is not permissible to do so - rather we should say subhana rabbi al A'la (x3) and raise after that. What is the most authentic opinion on this?

Imam Al-Nawawi, in his *Minhaj at-Talibin,* writes: > A person suffering from hunger who finds a corpse, and at the same time eatables not forbidden but belonging to another, should, according to our school, eat the corpse, rather then take the eatables that do not belong to him. This translation is bothersome because it at first appears as though he is speaking about human corpses. Within proper context however, it is clear he is speaking about animal corpses, i.e. carrion. However, this got me thinking about such a situation: in cases of absolute necessity, is it better to eat human corpses than to steal? We know that in cases of necessity, the *haram* becomes *halal.* However, this ruling is confusing, because it is not as though everything that is haram automatically becomes halal; some things become *halal,* and other things stay *haram.* Al-Nawawi makes it clear that eating unlawful food is a lesser sin than stealing property. This seems to prove the existence of a hierarchy of sins, in which eating unlawful food ranks as a better deed than stealing someone’s property. Is there a full hierarchy of sins? If so, where can I find it?

I have took a loan. I am going to pay it back for next ten years. Every month I pay 600 dollars interest in this loan installment. After taking loan, I got 50 thousand dollars from somewhere. I asked bank to take it. They said it is not possible because we want to earn interest. Can I put my money in the same bank and earn interest on it which is around 100 dollars and then pay it back to same bank in the loan installment which has 600 dollars interest in it?

I have a question if i ignore my waswas intrusive thoughts completely will I be sinful? And by ignoring I mean letting it pass and if I don’t avoid them or try to stop them. And they really are bad thoughts that I’m in too much pain because of it, everytime my heart gets so heavy to the point breathing becomes really hard for me.

The recent Friday qutba at Masjid-e-Ghousia in Praveen Tolichowki has sparked strong criticism. The qutba allegedly claimed that a woman who recited Surah Waqiah continuously until age 35 was rewarded with marriage to a wealthy person, which critics argue is a misguided example of the rewards of reciting the Quran.