I know a female doctor, a muslim doctor,she so kind and good doctor. If I got any sexual and my male organs matter. Some time I consult her. She is so preffesional and I didn't consult any other doctor for this matter. She only know my confidential matters in private area. She is aged. Above 55. Am 32. Any serious haram in this case? Because, lot of male doctors are there. But am a person who know very common in my area. Other male doctors know me. In social activities they also seeing regularly. So am shy to consult them. What they think of me and if they see my organs etc..Discomfort with their treatment and exam. but this female doctor already know about my medical background . Is it allowed? I searched same in chatgpt, i got +ve ans.

As we know Salah is a daily act for us muslims. But why is it that it is prayed differently though it was an extremely common daily act for the Prophetﷺ. For example: i) Why is there a difference of opinion of wether we should raise our hands (Takbeer) for ruku3 , coming up from ruku3 etc? ii) Again why is binding your hands or not getting up from ruku3 a matter of dispute ? iii)The dispute of wether we should raise and point with out finger while sitting the whole way through, only during the tashahud or only during the shahadah. These were extremely common practices but why are there differences in opinions about them. Please provide your proof using Ahadeeth or trustable sources aswell. Thank you.

Assalamualikum, Iam a 18 year old Muslim girl student seeking for help in this platform I found out on the internet. It would be helpful if you give me proper advice for my situation. My name is Sophia Usrat. I found out on the Google that Usrat means poverty, hardship. But in chatgpt it shows it means Family. Iam confused does my name carry any bad meaning.I asked my parents about that they told me they got the name from an islamic name book and it means something good. They told me not to worry about it. But as a Muslim girl who is concerned about consequences of Islam that every name should me meaningful. I feel exhausted about this. I hope that you would be able to give me proper advice for this situation. And if the name has bad meaning should we change it ?

I understand that according to classical fiqh, a master may sell a concubine after intercourse if she does not become pregnant and the waiting period (iddah) is observed. However, my question is different from merely asking about the permissibility of a single sale. What I am asking about is the following scenario: If a man intentionally structures repeated sales of the same woman — for example, selling her to another man for intercourse and then having her returned to him under a pretext (such as “discontent”), and repeating this process — such that the same original man repeatedly benefits from her sexual use, would this still be considered permissible? Does Islamic law consider the intent and overall structure in such a case? Would using valid sales contracts in this way be considered sinful if the purpose is to simulate prostitution through a legal loophole? Or returning based on “discontent” if that was untrue and done just to get around the ruling? “They were in effect prostituted; not by being owned by a single man who sold their sexual favors, but by being sold from client to client, and thus frequently changing owners. This solved the ban of prostitution, since it was allowed for a man to have sex with his slave. Since the principle of concubinage in Islam in Islamic Law allowed a man to have intercourse with his female slave, prostitution was also practiced by a pimp selling his female slave on the slave market to a client, who was allowed to have intercourse with her as her new owner; and who returned his ownership of her to her pimp on the pretext of discontent after intercourse, which was a legal and accepted method for prostitution in the Islamic world.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_prostitution Do not force your ˹slave˺ girls into prostitution for your own worldly gains while they wish to remain chaste. And if someone coerces them, then after such a coercion Allah is certainly All-Forgiving, Most Merciful ˹to them https://quran.com/an-nur/33

So I heard fatwas from sheikhs and scholars that generally wearing wig is haram but if a women has defect, like hair loss then she can wear it to fix it. For example even in this islamwqa article > With regard to using a wig in a case such as that which you have described, where the woman’s hair has fallen out in a case in which there is no hope of it growing back, we say that in such cases there is nothing wrong with wearing a wig, because in fact it is not done to enhance beauty; rather it is done to remove a defect. Sheikh ibn Uthaymin However I found a Hadith that shows that even in the case when the hair falls out cause of disease. It is still prohibited > حَدَّثَنَا الْحُمَيْدِيُّ، حَدَّثَنَا سُفْيَانُ، حَدَّثَنَا هِشَامٌ، > أَنَّهُ سَمِعَ فَاطِمَةَ بِنْتَ الْمُنْذِرِ، تَقُولُ سَمِعْتُ > أَسْمَاءَ، قَالَتْ سَأَلَتِ امْرَأَةٌ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم > فَقَالَتْ يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ إِنَّ ابْنَتِي أَصَابَتْهَا الْحَصْبَةُ، > فَامَّرَقَ شَعَرُهَا، وَإِنِّي زَوَّجْتُهَا أَفَأَصِلُ فِيهِ فَقَالَ > ‏"‏ لَعَنَ اللَّهُ الْوَاصِلَةَ وَالْمَوْصُولَةَ ‏"‏‏.‏ Narrated > Asma': A woman asked the Prophet (ﷺ) saying, "0 Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) > ! My daughter got measles and her hair fell out. Now that I got her > married, may I let her use false hair?" He said (to her), "Allah has > cursed the lady who lengthens hair artificially and the one who gets > her hair lengthened artificially." Sahih Sahih al-Bukhari, 5941 Then which is the right understanding? And how do you reconcile with the Hadith?

What should we do if we need help of beings other than Allah in necessary situations?

So, there's a debate whether cracking is allowed or not since some people argue that it isn't the same as stealing since there's no physical stuff involved. And there's another argument where if the dev is a jerk (such as selling expensive but bad stuff, not granting you to be able to play the game forever, etc) it's ok to crack. So does this affect the law that cracking is steal some form of stealing? Please answer with some of supporting law such as hadith, so i can be more sure

Do minor Sins become major if we do all time same Sins? I heard as well there is difference of oppinion in this matter too I mean if there are no minor sins,like all Sins are major Sins and no minor and repeating minor sins turns into a major sin, minor sins lead to major sins, and not considering minor sins a big deal is a major sin, then it sure sounds like every single Muslim will be going to Hell besides these great holy men.

Salam What if you wanted for example to buy a car from Mercedes Benz, a company that supports lgbt? Would it be haram to buy the car since they support lgbt? Same with for example using Disney+ or playing on Xbox, companies that support lgbt. Would it be haram to use these services?

I recently got answer from here that we shouldn't much talk with na mehram teacher unnecessary but what if teacher is elderly and have children and can we see them while they are explaining lessons or can we see female teachers who are explaining online bcoz they are explaining nice and I don't like any other explaining what's the ruling plz reference with hadeeth..

I am a MD radiologist. To give some context I live in a non Muslim majority country. I work in a hospital 6 days a week. In our department there are 5 radiologist including me. Only 1 of them is female and rest all are male. And I am the only muslim there. I chose radiology because I had a good rank and it is also the top sought profession with a small closing rank. Now our typical day involves CT scan, MRI, USG not only of pregnancy but also to evaluate organs like the liver, gallbladder, kidneys, and pancreas, to examine muscles, tendons, and joints, Vascular ultrasound,Thyroid ultrasound, Pediatric ultrasound, Cardiac ultrasound (echocardiogram), Prostate ultrasound, Other Ultrasound-guided procedures. Now we do have a good patient load hence everyone is busy. For female reproductive part disease related and breast related issues the female radio handles it almost 99% of time and also there is patient preference in this case. Rest work is done by division of labour. Now as far as how work is concerned there is a male and a female attendent for respective genders regardless of the doctor's gender they do all covering, uncovering positioning, etc. We keep a device on belly(for ultrasonography) or the parts(for other disorders, not pelvis and breast for me) and it captures the image(so no direct physical contact), I study and report. A or two family member is always present and the attended is also there for full time. I always keep my gaze lowered, don't look anything more or less than what area is required, nor go in excess talking with women. Sometimes there is emergency for female patients and I by duty have to attend it(we have divided work load). Am I sinful for operating on female patients, like ultrasonography or say artery blockage in hand, broken bone or blockage in back?

Peace be upon you. I dealt with a large company, and they were unfair in some of their dealings. They took more money than the contract stipulated, and I paid them money for services, but they didn't do it, which created for me many problems with my business. They didn't abide by all the terms of the contract. Since they are a large company with lawyers, I couldn't do anything but terminate the contract. They took about $7,000 from me in total. However, when they paied the final invoice, they made a mistake and overcharged me by $10,000. Should I inform them of the mistake? Or should I just ignore it since they didn't treat me honestly? The amout that they give my error is more that what i owe them, but if i signal that to them i will be forced to give back all the 10k May God bless you.

There is a similar question on this. It is a commonly known fact that Muhammad SAWS and many caliphs punished apostasy with death. However, my question is **whether it is *commanded* to punish someone with death for leaving Islam**. There are many Sunnahs which are not necessarily followed, like having a beard, or cleaning teeth with siwak. The Quran has direct commandments on how to punish some crimes, like theft and adultery. But is the death penalty for apostasy merely 'good practice' or is it a commandment?

Aslem walkuim ​​​​​ I married a girl about 3 years ago the marriage lasted for about a year then we had a lot of arguments so we separated (we never got divorced we both went our separate ways) after 2 years off no communication me and her started back talking! My question is are we still married as far as deen? If not what are the requirements for us to get back together?

In Islam, isn’t there a principle that the victim or their relatives can demand retribution against the attacker, essentially ‘an eye for an eye’? So, what about a situation where, for example, a driver accidentally hits and injures a person, causing them to become disabled? Could the victim or his relatives demand that the driver’s bones also be broken and that he be made disabled? I often wonder about this because there are many such cases worldwide.

I joined a Ramadan competition recently. They award the winners by measuring the deeds we did to Allah and the person who has the highest points is awarded. Daily they update a form to fill, it basically consists of the number of Thahajjath rakaths prayed, juzu completed, number of dikrs done, amount of sadakah given, number of tharaweeh prayers. Based on the number we get points on daily basis. My point is, is it right to measure what we do to Allah and tell to them? This question rose because I don't count the number of dikrs I do because I do it with pleasure and go countless, also I don't feel it's right to measure what we do to Allah because Allah SWT doesn't give us countless blessings not by measuring. It's just eternal is what I think. I want to know whether this competition is right or wrong and if its wrong I am ready to quit at anytime.

First of all, I would like to thank in advance for answering in the most kindest way. And i apologize for making my questions so big. Just wanted to let you know where i'm coming from. I have heard that previously during Imam Malik's time, some slave women were walking around or getting out of their homes bare breasted. He had strongly condemned this practice due to his understanding of the Quran/Sunnah as per this narration: > Kitaab Al-Jami‘ of Al-Imam Ibn Abi Zayd Al-Qayrawani Al-Maliki (died > 386 AH): He said, "He (i.e. Al-Imam Malik ibn Anas) strongly > disapproved of the behaviour of the slave women of Madinah in going > out uncovered above the lower garment." He said, "I have spoken to the > Sultan about it, but I have not received a reply." He said, "Beat the > slave women if they do that." I am aware that slave women had a relaxed awrah compared to the free women as per the differing opinions of the various schools of thought due to their work in servile environments and veiling was prohibited as a social status indicator but in case of **fitnah** or **harassment** or **fear of trouble** they are supposed to cover themselves up as free women have to do. I am also aware that in some point in history, there were practices of slave women being **paraded bare breasted** for attracting the highest bidders or buyers. Also I understand that a seller can adorn their slave women for attracting buyers similar to how a woman is adorned for marriage. I understand that Islam humanizes slaves by granting them certain rights, emphasizing their emancipation, and encouraging them to be treated like family members—with dignity, kindness, and respect. Based on my understanding of the commentaries from various schools of thought, even during the inspection process in slave markets at the time of the Prophet and his companions, the environment was supposedly controlled, with minimal exposure encouraged unless absolutely necessary, and only with the genuine intention to buy could you look or touch upto some extent (over clothing in Umar R.A's case), touching prohibited in the presence of lust. (please correct me if i'm wrong). **My Question is as follows:** - Was bare chested display for ***auctions*** or ***convenience*** or ***parading*** them bare chested for attracting the highest bidders, is that islamic or buyers islamically sanctioned (haram or halal)? Or was it just a corrupt practice that the masters used to do to exploit their slave women for commercial purposes or personal benefits? If it is halal, why? It spreads fitnah, encourages lustful intentions,objectifies and exploits slave women, public indecency, strips off their dignity, violates modesty rules etc which is quite contrary to inspection which usually happens for practical reasons out of necessity as opposed to lustful intentions. Also please answer this as well if possible Question regarding Slave Women Inspection Limits in the marketplace Thanks!

If husband says talaq talaq talaq three times in one sitting will it be considered as three talaqs or counted as one as talaq in quran is to be given by keeping gaps or iddath.and he has repeated same in past on call uttering talaq three times..kindly guide as per quran n sunnah

The Qur'an permits Muslim men to marry up to four women. However, Prophet (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam) was given permission in the Qur'an to marry more than four women in Qur'an 33:50. There are many theories for why this permission was only given to Prophet (Sallallahu'alayhiwassalam). One theory is that he was given this permission to make truce between Muslims and enemies of Muslims. **My main question is: is there any evidence from Hadith or Seerah that this theory holds any water?**

This is a question which requires some fiqh knowledge. I just want to discuss the fiqh of it, so would prefer, if personal biases are set aside in answering the question. My question is, would it be a correct understanding, Islamically, that when the ruling of a matter is “permissible” in the shariah rather than “Mustahhab” or “Sunnah” one can weigh the pros or cons of that matter and make own personal decision on whether to practice it or not? I ask this specifically in the context of polygamy. If one can think to potential harms polygamy might cause - such as pain to the wife/woman and possibly statistics that point to harms would it be correct to advice against polygamy weighing its pros and cons? For eg drinking energy drinks is permissible but it’s not good for you - so you may discourage it. Just like that would it be islamically fine to discourage polygamy? Would it be different in the case of polygamy because polygamy is explicitly mentioned in the Qur’an? What is in my mind as I think about this issue is verse 1 of Surah tahrim. By the way, for the benefit of this discussion, I am referring to the opinion of those scholars who consider polygamy only permissible and not Sunnah. I understand there are other opinions but that is not what this discussion is about. Like I said I am interested in the fiqh so I would appreciate someone wijt some knowledge of fiqh and for personal biases to be set aside.