Asalamu Alaykum, if i am a frequent doubter and during the salat in jamaat jummah prayer while we were going into sujud I was trying to touch my ankle to see if it was wet from wudu, does this movement invalidate the salat? I have problems with doubts and frequently question if I did wudu properly.

Assalamualaikum My question is making picture or drawing or even a imagination thing is Haram. I am not making any features of eye , I am not making humans but I am just making doodles is thi Haram? And I am making just back sketch,

I've read that imam Rafi, a great shafi'i scholar allowed the reed flute whilst imam Nawawi disagreed with him. What evidence did imam Rafi'i use to justify his ruling?

I would like to ask can man wear women underwear if they don't don't specifically highlight traits of ladies like ( thong; bikini etc) Those who just resemble with men underwear.I know man are not allowed to use women clothing and women are not allowed to use men clothing . Those who in the end of are decided by company that they are man or woman underwear If they are like not that clearly made for women . I am asking that as they are more comfortable and and some fit better each other at end of day they are underwear. Secondly can women wear man underwear if they don't have any element of man in them as some may be more suitable for women then traditional ones Some man and woman are labeled as unisex by companies but they are either man or woman underwear so can we say that if the company doesn't label them as any gender and they don't show clearly made for specific gender then we can wear any as they are just for covering and hygiene of body

Assalamu alaikum, My question is as in the subject, is hair transplant allowed in islam? Can we go through the process of adding new hair from other area of the head where there is more growth of hair. **No artificial hair**

Assalamualikum, Iam a 18 year old Muslim girl student seeking for help in this platform I found out on the internet. It would be helpful if you give me proper advice for my situation. My name is Sophia Usrat. I found out on the Google that Usrat means poverty, hardship. But in chatgpt it shows it means Family. Iam confused does my name carry any bad meaning.I asked my parents about that they told me they got the name from an islamic name book and it means something good. They told me not to worry about it. But as a Muslim girl who is concerned about consequences of Islam that every name should me meaningful. I feel exhausted about this. I hope that you would be able to give me proper advice for this situation. And if the name has bad meaning should we change it ?

What should be done when bleeding comes during ablution? Should it be restarted? I have a situation in which when i do ablution my gums starts to bleed especially when i wash my face. Then i restart my ablution again and again from this state. I have a question that should i start the ablution again and again this situation? Or i can complete my ablution and clean my mouth at the end.

I want to know that can I use a utensil which have pictures of animals, birds or humans drawn on it? If it is forbidden then why?

For a very long time, there was a barren piece of land. Someone occupied it and began cultivating it. A year after his occupation, we checked the records with the Patwari and the Revenue Department, and it turned out that the land was entirely ours — it had always been registered in our family’s name. The court and the legal authorities have now ruled in our favor. The cultivator has no legal share in the records; there is only a local tradition that our ancestors used to farm this land long ago, but it hasn’t been cultivated by us for the last fifty years. I also heard a narration saying that in Islam, if the owner does not cultivate the land for three years, it can be taken back from him. So from a religious perspective, what is the ruling? According to the law, we have the right to take back the land — but according to Islam, should we give it up?

I’m going to answer my own question because there aren’t any posts, in fairness, that talk about this topic in the English language. This is something I wish my younger self could have read. ***But the question pertains to the definition of the word “kuba” or ”kubah” (كوبة) and does it relate to the topic of music in the religion of sunni Islam?*** > Narrated Abdullah ibn Amr ibn al-'As: > > عَنْ عَبْدِ اللَّهِ بْنِ عَمْرٍو،أَنَّ نَبِيَّ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم نَهَى عَنِ الْخَمْرِ وَالْمَيْسِرِ وَالْكُوبَةِ وَالْغُبَيْرَاءِ وَقَال"‏ كُلُّ مُسْكِرٍ حَرَامٌ‏"‏‏.‏ قَالَ أَبُو دَاوُدَ قَالَ ابْنُ سَلاَمٍ أَبُو عُبَيْدٍ الْغُبَيْرَاءُ السُّكُرْكَةُ تُعْمَلُ مِنَ الذُّرَةِ شَرَابٌ يَعْمَلُهُ الْحَبَشَةُ ‏. > >The Prophet (ﷺ) forbade wine (khamr), game of chance (maysir), drum (kubah), and wine made from millet (ghubayrah), saying: Every intoxicant is forbidden. Abu Dawud said: Ibn Sallam Abu 'Ubaid said: Ghubairah was an intoxicant liquor made from millet. This wine was made by the Abyssinians Abu Dawood 3685: Book 26, Hadith 3677 as well as > Narrated Ibn Abbas: > >عَنِ ابْنِ عَبَّاسٍ، أَنَّ وَفْدَ عَبْدِ الْقَيْسِ، قَالُوا يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ فِيمَ نَشْرَبُ قَالَ ‏"‏ لاَ تَشْرَبُوا فِي الدُّبَّاءِ وَلاَ فِي الْمُزَفَّتِ وَلاَ فِي النَّقِيرِ وَانْتَبِذُوا فِي الأَسْقِيَةِ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ قَالُوا يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ فَإِنِ اشْتَدَّ فِي الأَسْقِيَةِ قَالَ ‏"‏ فَصُبُّوا عَلَيْهِ الْمَاءَ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ قَالُوا يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ ‏.‏ فَقَالَ لَهُمْ فِي الثَّالِثَةِ أَوِ الرَّابِعَةِ ‏"‏ أَهْرِيقُوهُ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ ثُمَّ قَالَ ‏"‏ إِنَّ اللَّهَ حَرَّمَ عَلَىَّ أَوْ حُرِّمَ الْخَمْرُ وَالْمَيْسِرُ وَالْكُوبَةُ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ قَالَ ‏"‏ وَكُلُّ مُسْكِرٍ حَرَامٌ ‏"‏ ‏.‏ قَالَ سُفْيَانُ فَسَأَلْتُ عَلِيَّ بْنَ بَذِيمَةَ عَنِ الْكُوبَةِ قَالَ الطَّبْلُ ‏.‏ > >The deputation of ‘Abd al-Qais asked (the prophet):From which(vessels)should we drink ? He (the prophet) replied: Do not drink from the pumpkins, vessels smeared with pitch, and hollow stumps , and steep dates in skins. They asked: Messenger of Allah, if it ferments? He replied: infuse water in it. They asked: Messenger of Allah...” (repeating the same words). He replied to them third or fourth time: Pour it away. He then said: Allah has forbidden me, or he said: He has forbidden me wine, game of chance and kubah(drums). He said: Every intoxicant is unlawful. Sufyan said: I asked ‘All b. Badhimah about kubah . He replied: Drum. Abu Dawood 3696: Book 26, Hadith 3687 *side note, (الدُّبَّاءِ) *dubba'e* is not a pumpkin per-se but more precisely calabash or long melon because pumpkins were not discovered until Columbus in the 15th century. A bit of an anachronism since the hadith takes place 1,400 years ago.

As you possibly know, Aql/Aghl (intellect) is regarded as one of the sources of Fiqh in Islam. In Shia Islam, there are four sources of Fiqh: Qur'an, Sunnah, Ijmaa’ and Aql. (www.wikifeqh.ir ) But as much as I know, Aql is considered as a source which has higher position/place (in Shia's view) in comparison with the view of other Mazhabs (sects). So, my query is that: **What is the reason that Shia (Twelver Shia) hold Aql in a higher position in comparison with other sects?**

Before asking my question I need to explain what made me ask it: Often when in a Muslim community a new revert/convert (in the cases I witnessed always female) came. The Muslims always gave (her) the advice to get married with a practicing Muslim of the other gender. So what if for some reasons one of this future spouses only agrees for this marriage to make a good deed, so the intention isn't to get married in the obvious way, but to help the other to learn as quick as possible more about Islam and how to practice things according this religion. So the purpose of this marriage is creating a legal mahram contact where both could be together. Note that I've often encountered marriages where the husband needed somebody to care for him, these were arranged marriages were a younger lady married an old for example blind man to take care from him. Apparently such marriages were "Building a family" isn't the main goal seem accepted. I guess if somewhere deep inside the idea of a future divorce exists this could be considered as nikah al-muta' by some scholars. And therefore this condition might not be accepted for nikah. But I assume that it is possible to get married without the intention of being physical whether or or not this can be placed in a marriage contract can be discussed. Also verses of the Qur'an and the prophetic traditions rather invite us to get married and have children, which is excluded by this condition! - So can such a condition be valid? - In any case: **What kinds of conditions are not valid for 'aqd an-nikah**? (ruling?) - Assuming this condition is valid, what if the spouses later want to be together as real spouses and have children must they divorce or re-write the 'aqd, what is the correct solution? ---------- At least this fatwa (only available in Arabic so far islamqa #220804 ) seems to say that delaying to have children (or pregnancy) can be a valid condition. Even if the fatwa says that the husband should convince his future wife to have children, as this is recommended by shari'a.

I am a muslim male. When I was a child a person older than me had anal sex with me several times. When I was a teenager I had oral sex with one of my cousins. Does that make me a fornicator? According to Quran 24:3 A fornicator does not marry except a fornicator. How can I get married?

I understand that according to classical fiqh, a master may sell a concubine after intercourse if she does not become pregnant and the waiting period (iddah) is observed. However, my question is different from merely asking about the permissibility of a single sale. What I am asking about is the following scenario: If a man intentionally structures repeated sales of the same woman — for example, selling her to another man for intercourse and then having her returned to him under a pretext (such as “discontent”), and repeating this process — such that the same original man repeatedly benefits from her sexual use, would this still be considered permissible? Does Islamic law consider the intent and overall structure in such a case? Would using valid sales contracts in this way be considered sinful if the purpose is to simulate prostitution through a legal loophole? Or returning based on “discontent” if that was untrue and done just to get around the ruling? “They were in effect prostituted; not by being owned by a single man who sold their sexual favors, but by being sold from client to client, and thus frequently changing owners. This solved the ban of prostitution, since it was allowed for a man to have sex with his slave. Since the principle of concubinage in Islam in Islamic Law allowed a man to have intercourse with his female slave, prostitution was also practiced by a pimp selling his female slave on the slave market to a client, who was allowed to have intercourse with her as her new owner; and who returned his ownership of her to her pimp on the pretext of discontent after intercourse, which was a legal and accepted method for prostitution in the Islamic world.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_prostitution Do not force your ˹slave˺ girls into prostitution for your own worldly gains while they wish to remain chaste. And if someone coerces them, then after such a coercion Allah is certainly All-Forgiving, Most Merciful ˹to them https://quran.com/an-nur/33

I've noticed the brushes for beard hair (and shaving to apply foam/gel if you decided to shave!) is made from boar (pig) hair. Can we use these?

Asalaam alaikum warahmatullahi wabarakatuh, About a month ago my wife requested a talaq from me due to pressure from her family and a month before that they instructed her to fetch her belongings from me and move in with them. After 2 months of no contact we started communicating and had intercourse after her visiting me. In the visit i could see that she still loved me and was still inlove with me as we discussed the reasons she left me. On another occasion due to the passing of a close friend I collected her and attended his funeral. Thereafter we had intercourse again, but with intention to reconcile. I have arranged 2 witnesses to draw up a document to revoke the talaq and take her back as myself and my wife agreed to reconcilation and I would rather take her back in all ways possible as I am afraid her family would try and find ways to keep us apart. **Is intercourse a way of taking her back?** Once I have taken her back with witnesses can her parents keep her away from me? She will not be present but she is aware of me revoking the talaaq, is that permissible? Shukraan in advance for your assistance.

Ibn Battal said: The scholars unanimously agreed that it is permissible for fathers to marry off their young daughters, even if they are still in the cradle - Umdat Al-Qari Sharh Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 14, Page 21 

Assalam o alaikum. I went to washroom to take bath. During changing clothes, my bladder felt pressure and small amount of urine came out. Then I emptied my whole bladder. Unfortunately, the urine did not pass down the drain as it was choked. Furthermore, more water came from another washroom and the water was standing in the washroom with the urine mixed. What should I do now? My slippers also came in contact with them and I travelled to my room in them. Furthermore, students bathe here and then go to Masjid. I'm very worried. What shoul I do?

In case that Khul'a الخلع happened and the wife and husband have legally been separated, but want to get back together. I assume that there's no turning back (reconciliation) within the 'Iddah as it would be the case for talaq. Nevertheless on this topic there are two different views one setting khul'a "equal to talaq" (divorce) and another setting it "equal to faskh" (invalidation) as I've learnt from https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/35273/what-is-the-period-of-iddah-after-khula . So there might be at least two different opinions on whether or not a reconciliation is not permissible. I'd like to have an answer addressing the possibly different fiqh views on this: - Is it allowed to reconcile during the 'Iddah? - If not is it allowed to re-marry during the 'Iddah or must they wait?

Assalāmu ʿalaykum wa raḥmatullāh, I have a question regarding the Islamic ruling on the use of paid digital software and licenses. I run an educational website. Some software (like learning management systems or WordPress plugins/themes) have free and paid “Pro/Business” versions. Paid versions require purchasing a license directly from the company and are restricted to the purchaser or to client websites managed by the license owner. In my case: I did not buy the paid license directly. A third person who owns a license activated the Pro/Business version on my website for a small payment. I do not have access to the official account and do not manage the license. I only use the Pro features on my site. The software company does not allow selling or sharing license activations. My questions are: Is it permissible in Shariah to continue using such paid software when the license is owned by another person and not purchased officially in my name? Does paying that person make it permissible if the software company did not authorize resale or sharing? If this usage is not permissible, is there any sin for past use due to ignorance? Is it required to stop using the paid features and switch to the free version unless the license is purchased officially? Kindly provide guidance according to Islamic principles. Jazākumullāhu khayran.