Disclaimer: I am a true muslim, but asking to get the right answer. So, if we accept that Allah has created us to worship him, it doesn’t seem too convincing from a high level. Let’s say Allah gave us free will and that’s why he wants to see who worships him, and who doesn’t. But if that’s the case, why did he need it at all? If the answer to this is that he wanted to “test” us, it brings everyone back to square one. If “testing” us was the case, why not just test if we act good to each other? Why also imply the rule of worshipping him? Initially Allah created angels, then other beings (i might be unaware) and finally us. If he wasn’t fulfilled with the other beings’ worship, did this spark his interest to create humans? If that’s so, doesn’t that mean that Allah is provoked by a motive, which he, by definition, shouldn’t be? Some people tend to give the example of a teacher and his students, where the teacher would test his students to see who is doing better. But this us a very vague comparison given that the “Job” of a teacher is to test. The society expects a teacher to test and created/filter the best students. But Allah has no such surrounding to provoke him this way. Then why…? So if anyone could answer this in the most logical way, it would be highly appreciated.

Selamun aleikum, Why does the Quran only states eight livestock animals, are there not more? „ ...and He produced for you from the grazing livestock eight mates...“ (Az Zumar, Verse 6, Saheeh International) „[They are] eight mates – of the sheep, two and of the goats, two. ...“; „ ... And of the camels, two and of the cattle, two...“ (An-Anam, Verse 143-144, Saheeh International) Thanks for responses, May Allah bless you.

I have seen Shias celebrate the 22nd Rajab (the seventh Arabic lunar month) by making special cookies and sweet dishes, and by visiting each other. What is the importance of 22nd Rajab in Islamic history? What's the background of this day and why do Shias celebrate this day?

In Islam, if a woman commits adultery, a man can use *Li'aan* and use it to inflict the punishment of *hud* on her. If she tells a lie, she also has to say in the end that she may be cursed by Allah. But at the same time, a woman cannot do so. Now if a man were to rape a woman, she cannot go to the court and get him stoned without four witness. Even if there is a punishment of tazir, he still has less punishment than a woman who cheated on her husband and got caught.

i'm looking for the whole commentary of ar razi to sure al yusuf but cannot find it, cause i'm writting about ar razi and i need his opinion about Al-Hurūf al-Muqatta'ah and in general the entire commentary to this sure would help me. i'd really appreciate it if you can help me by any chance.

I am a Muslim woman and I plan to get married to a man who is agnostic. I will not force him to become a Muslim but if he does then that’s good. If not, that’s okay to me too. I love him and I don’t want to force anything on him. My question is just if the marriage will be valid and will I still remain a Muslim?

At the place where I live (in my masjid), imam do prayers very fast. To give you an idea we finish Isha prayer + Tarawih + Witr prayer in about 30 minutes. He's going that fast that he sometimes skips some words in Al Fatiha. Plus there is no space to recite subhaneke so I need to recite it while he recites Al Fatiha. Two days ago I spoke with him and asked if it's possible to slow it down so I can recite subhaneke. He told me to recite it while he's reciting Al Fatiha and to don't worry because he's taking all responsibilities. He said the reason why he's doing it is that there are 90% old people and they hardly can take a wudu. So it's basically to ease them. The congregation is really small about 20 people at max. What's strange as I know no one complained about it. I said ok and didn't want to argue because of the next reasons: 1. I started to pray about 2 months ago 2. The Imam I'm speaking about knows almost whole Quran, he's a few pages to became hafiz. 3. He's imam over 5 years in this masjid 4. He has an amazing voice and he's able to recite like Arabic is his native language. I listened to his youtube videos (I won't share it here, I don't want to reveal his identity), it's really beautiful and it's really sad that he does not do even close to that on prayers. **It's not just Taraweeh I have been on other prayers and it's the almost same speed, no way you can recite subhaneke.** I'm in a big doubt, I just prayed zuhr at home. My second option is going to the main Masjid in my city which is 1.2 kilometers from my home. I decided from now on to go there too Taraweeh. Prayers there are way slower. **The thing is I don't feel that I will be able to go on most of the prayers there, I'm I doing a mistake if I'm praying at home for the above reasons?**

Each country (except a few, probably) takes loans from central banks, and then uses this money for various purposes. To pay back that money, they take taxes and VAT that people pay, and pay their interest based loan. So every time I buy a Samsung phone on the Samsung website, Samsung the company will pay some VAT to the government (this is also true for KFC, shopping centers, etc.), who in turn will use it to pay their interest based loan Can I safely buy some chocolate, or unnecessary groceries at shops?

In many places in the Quran, Allah (SWT) says: > مَا لَمْ يُنَزِّلْ بِهِۦ سُلْطَـٰنًۭا For example in [7:33](https://quran.com/7/33) , [22:71](https://quran.com/22/71) , and [3:151](https://quran.com/22/71) . Let's analyze the first verse: > قُلْ إِنَّمَا حَرَّمَ رَبِّىَ ٱلْفَوَٰحِشَ مَا ظَهَرَ مِنْهَا وَمَا بَطَنَ وَٱلْإِثْمَ وَٱلْبَغْىَ بِغَيْرِ ٱلْحَقِّ وَأَن تُشْرِكُوا۟ بِٱللَّهِ مَا لَمْ يُنَزِّلْ بِهِۦ سُلْطَـٰنًۭا وَأَن تَقُولُوا۟ عَلَى ٱللَّهِ مَا لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ٣٣ Let's assume that it only says وَأَن تُشْرِكُوا۟ بِٱللَّهِ وَأَن تَقُولُوا۟ عَلَى ٱللَّهِ مَا لَا تَعْلَمُونَ The meaning is still complete. Do not commit shirk. But when Allah (SWT) adds مَا لَمْ يُنَزِّلْ بِهِۦ سُلْطَـٰنًۭا this creates a possiblity. It semantically means that Allah can permit shirk if he wants to, and for anything that he wants to. An equivalent English example can be: > Do not eat chocolate It's 100% clear and needs no further clarification. Yet: > Do not each chocolate, for which I have not given you prescriptions This opens the door to the possibility that there can be prescribed chocolate. How do we understand it linguistically? What is the tafseer of adding مَا لَمْ يُنَزِّلْ بِهِۦ سُلْطَـٰنًۭا to prohibitions regarding shirk?

In Qur'an , it is told ( I don't remember exact verses but I am sure that it exists.) stating about prophet(s) like Musa ( Moses ) and Suleiman ( Solomon) that they came with miracles to counter magic and guide humanity with the message of God. However, atleast in this progressing era, magic is (commonly) believed to be just a game of illusion and tricks. Many magicians and there tricks have been debunked. So , is a muslim necessarily obliged to believe that magic exists as something supernatural and it's not just visual and others type of tricking of gullible people ?

Due to the fact that Allah is All-wise, there must've been a reason for sending down Quran in Arabic. So what is it? What would have happened if Allah had used another language? I'm asking this question because of the second verse of Surah Yusof where Allah says: > **إِنَّا أَنْزَلْناهُ قُرْآناً عَرَبِيًّا لَعَلَّكُمْ تَعْقِلُونَ** > > **Indeed We have sent it down as an Arabic Qur'an so that you may apply reason.**

Assalamu alaikum brother, I see on YouTube people criticising or roasting others work or art . Is this fine ? Because to consider it as back biting they don't talk behind their backs . They openly criticise them . And roasting is common nowadays. Is it fine to watch those videos???

Salam, I am Muslim but, unfortunately my parents haven't taught me much about our religion and I keep learning new information on my own and trying to tell them. I went on vacation with my siblings and I have never heard that certain fish was haram in all my life apart from frogs. I ate mussels in a pasta dish which I would never eat but did unfortunately to find out months later its haram to consume. I was never told crab and lobster is haram too. I usually do not eat meat so I have more a pescetarian diet as I do not enjoy chicken or lamb or beef too much. of course since I was a baby I knew pork, frogs were haram. I was totally in shocked to find this out and cannot believe no one has corrected me in all theses years. Will Allah forgive me for genuinely not knowing this was haram and what should I do to repent the sin.

Allah (swt) in Surah Nisa Ayah 125 says: > وَمَنْ أَحْسَنُ دِينًۭا مِّمَّنْ أَسْلَمَ وَجْهَهُۥ لِلَّهِ وَهُوَ مُحْسِنٌۭ وَٱتَّبَعَ مِلَّةَ إِبْرَٰهِيمَ حَنِيفًۭا ۗ وَٱتَّخَذَ ٱللَّهُ إِبْرَٰهِيمَ خَلِيلًۭا Is this not against him being Subhan? In other places Allah condemns those people who claim that Allah has children and immediately says that he is Subhan and free from needing children. I can't reconcile friendship with being Subhan.

I had bad thoughts about my aunt for a long time so I decided to do something with her.she has been married for 10 years and has 2 childrens. Next time I meet her I talked with her give me a handjob and a blowjob.she was very hesitant but she gave me a blowjob and handjob and we both were naked.now I feel guilty and I have said sorry to her.So would this be considered as zina ?

I don't really understand why it is haram to have a relationship with the opposite sex (with no sexual intercourse), or even just be friends. If I meet a girl, I would like to get to know her before getting married, and risk a miserable life with an incompatible partner.

I know that this kind of question has been asked multiple times on this site and you can probably find them on Google as well, but one thing that is still unclear to me is regarding alcohol that was used as one of the ingredients in any Japanese food (Sushi), Italian food (Lasagna) and any other western food in general. Now, I've read in some hadith that: > Whatever intoxicates in large quantities, a little of it is haraam.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 1865; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi. To make it clear for myself and anyone here, the above quote is referring to any drink that will make you drunk in large quantity even for a single drop it will be haram. But, what if that single drop of the haram drink was added in any type of food and you consumed that food. Will it make the food that you consumed haram? I know that the content of the alcohol doesn't evaporate completely and I'm referring it to many sources > A study conducted by the US Department of Agriculture’s Nutrient Data Laboratory in an articles called Alcohol retention in food preparation, by Augustin J, Augustin E, Cutrufelli RL, Hagen SR, Teitzel C., J Am Diet Assoc. 1992 Apr;92(4):486-8, calculated the percentage of alcohol remaining in a dish based on various cooking methods. The results are as follows: Link to the table of content http://whatscookingamerica.net/Q-A/AlcoholCooking.htm My real question is: **If drinking wine in large amounts is intoxicating in small amounts, it is haram.** **If adding a small amount of wine to lasagne, and eating a large amount of that lasagne is not intoxicating, is lasagne halal?**

I have noticed that different people look at different places when praying. Does it matter where we look when we pray and where should we really be looking at during each step?

The Quran states: "Those who believe, and those who are Jewish, and the Christians, and the Sabeans—any who believe in God and the Last Day, and act righteously—will have their reward with their Lord; they have nothing to fear, nor will they grieve." This would imply that believing Jesus is God is fine. But since the Quran states that Jesus is not God, how is this different then believing Moses is God or Adam is God? In other words, if someone believes Moses is God instead of Jesus, but otherwise believes and behaves as would a Christian, can they still go to heaven?

In 3:93 we read: > ۞ كُلُّ ٱلطَّعَامِ كَانَ حِلًّۭا لِّبَنِىٓ إِسْرَٰٓءِيلَ إِلَّا مَا حَرَّمَ إِسْرَٰٓءِيلُ عَلَىٰ نَفْسِهِۦ مِن قَبْلِ أَن تُنَزَّلَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةُ ۗ قُلْ فَأْتُوا۟ بِٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ فَٱتْلُوهَآ إِن كُنتُمْ صَـٰدِقِينَ ٩٣ When I read it, based on the particular literary style of the Quran, and based on the ان کنتم صادقین I expect the first part **not** to be a piece of factual information but to be a claim made by Jews, yet the subject is hidden (this is common in the Quran). I understand the meaning to be: > (Jews claimed) every food was permissible before Torah (while it was not so in fact, and they also had prohibited food too. In fact, Allah prohibits bad food for all nations.). Tell them: Read Torah to support your claim if you are right. The reason I understand it like that is the challenge. It says *ان کنتم صادقین*, but nobody has said anything yet. That's why I assume the first part to be the claim of the Jews and the subject to be hidden. However, in almost [all translations](https://quran.com/3/93?translations=131,85,17,207,149,19,167,84,203,206,20,95,171,57,22,173,136,31,779,233,81,143,118,29,135,172,210,77,52,124,112,158,234,54,156,151,97,101,127,55,122) it seems that they have translated the first part as a piece of factual information, and the second part as a challenge for refuting this information, like: *(The truth is) every food was permissible before Torah, (if you claim that it's otherwise and there were food prohibitions for you too like for Muslims) then bring the Torah forward and read it* But based on the Kahf story [18:25-26], it seems to me that it's a literary style of the Quran. I think sometimes Quran presents the opponents' claims first, without quoting them, then challenges them, or corrects them. What linguistic or general reasoning (semantic or pragmatic) is in this verse for the interpretation or translation of the first part as factual information and not the claim of Jews?