A query in similar to a question posted on this site (https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1320/is-interest-based-educational-loan-allowed ) (this may seem like a similar question, but from a clear angle). >Allah says: “Those who devour interest will not stand except as stands one whom Satan has driven mad by his touch.” [Sûrah al-Baqarah: 275] > >Allah says about one who engages in interest that he should: “take notice of war from Allah and His Messenger.” [Sûrah al-Baqarah: 279] > >Paying interest is sinful, just like receiving interest is sinful. The Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “Allah curses the one who consumes interest, the one who pays it, the one who draws up the contract, and the witnesses to the contract, then he said they are same (in sinfulness) ” [Sahîh Muslim] > >"O you who believe! Be afraid of Allah and give up what remains due to you from riba, if you are really believers. And if you do not do it, then take a notice of war from Allah and His Messenger." [2:277-278] > >"The Messenger of Allah, Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam, has cursed, 'The one who takes riba, the one who writes it and the one who witnesses it,' and he said, They are equal (in sin)'." (Muslim) > >"Riba has seventy three gates, the least of them is like a man who fornicates with his mother. And verily, the worst of riba is the Muslim's honor." (al-Hakim) And he also said, "A dirham that a man spends knowing he gained it from riba is worse than thirty six instances of fornication." Brothers, I understand the sins gained from accepted deals which interest is a part of, Allah SWT has commanded us to seek knowledge. We can do so by completing education, to complete education in a Western country like the UK, a degree will cost a minimum of £40000 in total excluding living cost. Now a person might think to earn such an amount of money by working (a job without a degree will have an annual salary of (£9000)). This is a pure annual salary, but that does not mean that such a salary will remain as it is by the end of each year as a person has commitments to rent, food, family, etc. Therefore, if a person is to plan on saving for a degree it will take around five years or more (if it's possible but highly doubtful). Now there are organisations which provide students with educational loans in order to complete their studies, but these loans can have an interest rate set to them. Islamic banks or normal banks don't give such huge loans to even consider interest free, especially that students don't have stable earnings and low credit scores! Now this interest is for me to repay. It is not provided with the initial payments made to me, so I am not benefiting from the interest at all, but I do benefit from the loan (to pay university fees) Now as you seen in my explanation that taking such a loan is life essential to success and have stable earnings to support a family and life expenses, so would I be committing a sin by accepting such a loan as I am not benefiting from the interest at all? > From Abu Hurayrah : The Prophet, , said: "There will certainly come a time for mankind when everyone will take riba and if he does not do so, its dust will reach him." (Abu Dawud, Kitab al-Buyu', Bab fi ijtinabi al-shubuhat; also in Ibn Majah) Alhamdullah, I believe in god and his messenger, but I know Islam is not a hard religion (for the believers) and there can be exception in some situations within life! Also If a person takes an interest based loan for a start-up business and then repays that loan, does that mean that all of his profits are related to interest as if they didn't take the loan they may not have had this business to begin with? Brother and sisters, please explain in detail if I am in the wrong here!

Assalamualaikum, I have heard that wearing a ring on index and middle finger is prohibited in islam for men. The question is why is it prohibited, and if i still wear it on my index finger, then am I committing a sin?

There are two dolls of elephants made of clay just for the beautification of the house. Is it permissible in Islam?

there is a Hadith that says this: > Narrated Said bin Al-Musaiyab: Abu Huraira said, "I heard Allah's Apostle saying, 'There is none born among the off-spring of Adam, but Satan touches it. A child therefore, cries loudly at the time of birth because of the touch of Satan, except Mary and her child." Then Abu Huraira recited: "And I seek refuge with You for her and for her offspring from the outcast Satan" (3.36) (Sahih al-Bukhari 3431) but the thing is there are some babies that don't cry at birth so what about them, are they not touched by Satan?

I am finding conflicting information on whether or not abortion is permitted unconditionally in Islam or not. Nearly all sources I am finding concede that abortion after 120 days gestation is not permitted; however, there is not a consensus on before 120 days gestation. The varying information I am receiving is: - abortion is permitted unconditionally before 40 days (not sure what the reasoning is) - abortion is permitted unconditionally before 120 days (something about a soul entering the body?) - abortion is permitted at any time if there is a danger to the mother's health or in cases of rape - abortion is permitted at any time if the newborn has deformities that will make it difficult for the parents to take care of the child It seems that the Qu'ran is not explicit about whether or not abortion is permitted. There are verses on "blood money" for the born, but is there anything on the unborn? Is there a definition of when life begins - is it when the child is conceived or when it enters the birth canal? Some sources indicate that there is a Hadith somewhere (I couldn't find it) which says that soul enters the body at 120 days gestation (another says that its 40 days), hence, the reason to permit abortion prior. On the other hand, there also seems to a big pro-life movement which goes as far as to ask Muslims to work with pro-life Christians in supporting a pro-life stance. The movement strongly believes that life begins at conception and that abortion should not be permitted (unless there is a danger to mother's health). Seeing that I probably will not be able to get a "yes" or "no" answer to whether abortion is permitted or not, my questions are, according to Islam: - **Does life begin at conception or 40 days or 120 days when the soul enters?** Please back this up with verses from the Quran/hadiths. - **What is the Islamic view of an unborn child? Is it equivalent to a born child?** (i.e. killing unborn = killing born)

It is very clear that Quran forbids intercourse between man and woman before marriage. However, when it comes to **relationships**, the only close reference I have from Qu'ran is that we should "lower our gaze and guard our sexual organ", but so far I didn't see any **direct** forbiddence in being in a relationship with a girl which does not involve any haram interactions. There are many many rulings on dating and relationships by various people, fatwās, and scholars, such as [this](http://caliph.wordpress.com/articles/boy-girl/) . But very little citation is **directly from Quran**. I want to say that I trust only in Allah and his Angels, the Holy Quran, and Prophet Muhammad, but not in any other worldly people when it comes to how to live my life. So my question is, is there any direction citation from the Holy Quran, or Prophet Muhammad (but no more than these two) that talks explicitly about: 1) What are haram interactions apart from anything to do with sexual organs according to Quran? (Such as, kissing, holding hands, cuddling, meeting in private etc) 2) Forbidding relationship between men and women which does not involve any haram interactions before marriage.

It goes along the lines of what is mentioned in a lecture and on the internet, which is **not** the Hadith mentioned in Sahih Muslim (190a ), but is still somehow similar to this following narration (if it is true): ***The story***: The Prophet (ﷺ) laughed one day and so his Sahabah asked: "*What are you smiling about?*" He said: "*I was looking into the Day of Judgment*" - and every time the Prophet (ﷺ) saw the Day of Judgement, he would (usually) cry or panic and worry for everyone. But this time, he smiled and he said: "*I smiled because the People, on the Day of Judgment, a group of them will laugh*", they asked: "*Who are 'they'*" and he said: "*They are People on the Judgement Day who will laugh*", and the Sahabah asked: "*Who are they?*" The Prophet (ﷺ) said: "*They are people who committed sins and they will laugh on the Day of Judgement [...] and the people will ask them what they were laughing about.* They will say: "*We've sinned [...] and we repented [...] and our sins became good deeds!*" ------ This is the only video that I could find which is refering to this narration, but it is not revealing a reference or its authenticity.

Assalamualaikum, I'm actually confused, I have found in Internet that prophet had 6 children (4 daughters and 2 sons),another place it say he had actually 7 children(4 daughters and 3 sons],which one is correct,or how many children he had?

AsSalam Aalykum. I am aware of the fact that a Sunni marriage will not be considered valid if there are no witnesses for the marriage. As far as I know, there are ahadith which stress on the necessity of this condition. I haven't found verses in the Qur'an yet about witnesses in marriages but I found ahadith on [IslamQA](https://islamqa.info/en/answers/113868/adulthood-is-a-condition-of-being-a-witness-to-marriage) with regards to this matter: > In order for a marriage to be valid, it is stipulated that it be > witnessed by two Muslim witnesses of good character, because the > Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no > marriage except with a wali (guardian) and two witnesses of good > character. Narrated by al-Bayhaqi from the hadeeth of ‘Imraan and > ‘Aa’ishah; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Jaami’ no. > 7557. Shi'a Muslims, on the other hand, [claim that](https://www.al-islam.org/marriage-according-five-schools-islamic-law-allamah-muhammad-jawad-maghniyyah/marriage-contract-and#fref_5311d421_2) it is *mustababb* for the witnesses to be present but not *wajib*. I believe that any Islamic ruling should be firmly backed by the Qur'an and the sayings of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH). Relevant statement from the link above: > The Imamiyyah do not consider the presence of witnesses as wajib but > only mustababb. The following is stated regarding [marriage](https://www.sistani.org/english/book/46/2062/) witnesses on Al-Sayyid Ali Al-Husseini Al-Sistani's website: > It is permissible for the couple to recite the formula of marriage > agreement by themselves or by appointing representatives who will > recite it on their behalf. There is no condition for the presence of > witnesses during the solemnization of the marriage, just as the > presence of a cleric is not a condition for the validity of the > marriage. On a website called Alulbayt Foundation, the following answer (and question) is given for marriages: > Q14) Can a permanent marriage be made secretly without the permission > of parents of bride and without the witness being called? > > A14) **Presence of two witnesses is not necessary when a marriage > contract is being read.** And a girl who is not independent in her > living affairs should obtain permission of her father or paternal > grandfather for marriage. And if she is independent, she should obtain > her guardian’s permission as a measure of obligatory precaution. On Wikipedia, for the topic of [Islamic marriage contract](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Islamic_marriage_contract) , the following has been stated about witnesses for Shi'a marriages: > In Shia Islam, witnesses to a marriage are deemed necessary, but in > case are not available then the two parties may conduct the nikah > between themselves. Which Qur'anic verses and/or ahadith support the Shi'a ruling on the presence/absence of witnesses for marriages?

Why does the Shafi'i Madhab permit killing all non Muslim adult males during Jihad? Is it just because of their disbelief? Isn't that too cruel? **Bidayat al-Mujtahid** Ibn Rushd writes: > They disagreed about the case of hermits cut off from the world, the > blind, the chronically ill, the old who cannot fight, the idiot, and > the peasants and serfs. ... **According to al-Shafi'fs most authentic** > **opinion, all of these categories (of people) are to be put to death.** > > The Distinguished Jurist's Primer Vol. 1 p. 458 translated by Imran > Ahsan Khan Nyazee Ibn Rushd writes elswhere: > The basis for their disagreement stems from the conflict of the > specificity in some traditions with the general implication of (some > verses of) the Qur'an, and also the generality of the authentic saying > of the Prophet (God's peace and blessings be upon him), "I have been > commanded to fight mankind until they say, 'There is no God but > Allah.'" The words of the Exalted, "Then, when the sacred months have > passed, slay the idolaters wherever ye find them", **imply the slaying** > **of every nonbeliever** **whether or not he is a monk**, and so does the > saying of the Prophet (God's peace and blessings be upon him), "I have > been commanded to fight mankind until they say, 'There is no God but > Allah'". > > The Distinguished Jurist's Primer Vol. 1 p. 458-459 translated by > Imran Ahsan Khan Nyazee **Al-Hidayah** > A woman, minor, enfeebled old man, an invalid, and a blind man are not > to be killed. ... **Al-Shafi'i (God bless him) goes against our opinion** > **in the case of the enfeebled old man, the invalid, and the blind. The** > **reason is that permitted killing in his view is based upon unbelief** > > Al-Hidayah Vol. 2 p. 293 translated by Imran Ahsan Khan Nyazee **Reliance of the Traveller** > **It is permissible to kill old men ... and monks.** > > Reliance of the Traveller o9.10 translated by Nuh Ha Mim Keller **Follow Up Question** Does this mean that not all non combatants are impermissible to kill?

I am an eBay seller and I need to ship goods to customers around the world. But custom officers in my country are corrupted and they ask for bribes from me on each shipment. Now I am using a courier service. The person who manage the customs told me to write lower values on the item invoice. I am doing so from then but I think it is not right. Is it permissible in Islam to bribe the person if he otherwise won't do his job legally even though he should? Can I under value the items because the courier officer asks me to and wouldn't let me do my business otherwise? In both the cases I'm compelled to bribe them for something that I have legal right to do. What is Islamic ruling in this regard?

I've heard this story a few times, and I'm wondering if it's actually true. Basically, the story goes something like: a non-Muslim was being punished under sharia, but instead of using the Qur'an, the judge used the non-Muslim's holy book for sentencing. **Question**: Is it true that non-Muslims are punished under sharia according to their holy book (e.g., the Bible)?

Salam, Prophets were sent by God to guide humans. But it is ambiguous and unwise to believe what anyone says. But what distinguished prophets from others ( for example magicians) was their **unchallenged** miracles. The miracles were distinct because they were divine and given directly by god ; such that no human things/tricks can defeat it ever. For example, Quran is miraculous because it claims that no book can be written ever guiding (and it's other features.) like it till the day of resurrection. Hence, one should believe prophets because their miracles are unchallenged by humans; thus making them unambiguous; and hence one of key absolute proofs for submission to god. **Question:** One of miracles of Isa(Jesus) (peace be upon him) was to heal people with diseases which were from birth. For example, congenital deafness/blindness . So , **does Islam claims that humans will never be able to find cure of congenital deafness/blindness ; thus preserving the un-ambiguity of miracles of it's prophets ?**

Salam, My question is, is it allowed for a woman to befriend a gay man? I could find no answer, i'd love you to help me out and cit some sources. Thanks

For example, Al-Baqara begins like this: > **الٓمٓ** ﴿١﴾ ذَٰلِكَ ٱلْكِتَـٰبُ لَا رَيْبَ ۛ فِيهِ ۛ هُدًى > لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ And also, Ya-Sin begins like this: > **يسٓ** ﴿١﴾ وَٱلْقُرْءَانِ ٱلْحَكِيمِ What are different opinions about these letters among scholars? What are they called?

The generally held view of traditional scholarship is that its meaning is not known to us. But why didn't the Arabs raise any objection when the verses were recited?

It is not my question, But some one asked me about this issue.What are the differences of wife's submission/deference (Tamkin Khas) in Islamic law and marital rape in western law? In western law there is an idea which the husband can not force his wife to have sex (sexual intercourse), but in Islam we see some orders which show that Tamkin is the only duty of wife in her marriage.

my name is Abdullah. I'm currently learning to memorize the Quran. I discovered an excellent method for memorizing the Quran verse by verse. It is a method in which you create "associations" for each word (letter or sound) in the Quran. First, I would create a route for memorizing all of the visual(objects) "associations," so that on the first point (for example, the entrance to my house), there is a Quran or a person pointing up in the air, and that is my "association" for Allah (Subhana wa ta'aala), and then when I remember that someone was pointing up in the air, I immediately know that I have to say, Allah. And, yes, I am aware that associating with Allah (Subhana wa ta'aala) is a shirk, but this is different; I am associating with the word or name "Allah," not with the actual Allah (Subhana wa ta'aala). Also, keep in mind that I don't just use this technique to memorize Allah (subhana wa ta'aala); I use it for all of the words, letters, and sounds in the Quran. Is this technique permissible in Islam?

If i commit a major sin accidently do i have to repent? For example if i show my awrah when taking off my shirt am i sinful or what if i did a major sin that i did not know was a sin? If i backbite someone out of forgetfulness do i have to repent? What if someone i backbited said that it is okay if i backbite him out of forgetfulness do i still have to then repent? And is it haram to not lower my gaze if i donr look out of lust and desire? Thanks

Disclaimer: I am a true muslim, but asking to get the right answer. So, if we accept that Allah has created us to worship him, it doesn’t seem too convincing from a high level. Let’s say Allah gave us free will and that’s why he wants to see who worships him, and who doesn’t. But if that’s the case, why did he need it at all? If the answer to this is that he wanted to “test” us, it brings everyone back to square one. If “testing” us was the case, why not just test if we act good to each other? Why also imply the rule of worshipping him? Initially Allah created angels, then other beings (i might be unaware) and finally us. If he wasn’t fulfilled with the other beings’ worship, did this spark his interest to create humans? If that’s so, doesn’t that mean that Allah is provoked by a motive, which he, by definition, shouldn’t be? Some people tend to give the example of a teacher and his students, where the teacher would test his students to see who is doing better. But this us a very vague comparison given that the “Job” of a teacher is to test. The society expects a teacher to test and created/filter the best students. But Allah has no such surrounding to provoke him this way. Then why…? So if anyone could answer this in the most logical way, it would be highly appreciated.