I actually got new glasses and i am actually gonna wear it to my class tomorrow and i want to see how people will react but is this haram? Like after going i have to wear it to see, so if i wear it while entering to see people's reaction haram? If it is, how should I wear because I just think I may for some reason do showoff, should I just let them see it or should I go to them and say I got glasses but I think I might showoff?

In the story of Joseph (12:77), when the cup is found in Benjamin's bag, the other sons of Jacob say this about him: >"If he steals - a brother of his has stolen before." Who are they referring to? And what happened in that incident?

A person who has a gas problem is finding it difficult to pray on the last ten nights the Taraweeh prayer. What should he do ? Please answer quickly since Ramadan is almost over. If you know a sheikh or mufti who can answer this please tell him about this because the prophet said that he who leads others to doing good deeds will get the same amount of merits done by those whom he led to do good deeds Jazakallahu Khair

A Christian brought this argument. He stated that under Islam the polytheist marriage isn't exactly "valid". He stated the fact that the Prophet was born out of a disbeliever makes him a child of adultery (audhubillah). This really disturbed me and I wanted to make sure what the take is. I've already read ahadith where the Prophet stated that he wasn't allowed to supplicate for his mother indicating she died upon disbelief.

I remember that I read 2 months ago a Hadith. It stated approx. that we have to wear garments which let us always be ready to mount an animal. I can't find it anymore, I don't know where I read it and what grade it is.

Hello I'm a game designer and I'm worry about my work right now. If I designed game that story is about god (like god of war) I'm afraid that maybe it is haram? if I make it for fun and I don't think that charecter is my god. So if someone love my game and he or she praise my charecter game that it is a god in my game(like some one love Kratos and praise him as a god of war) that I will get sin or not? thank you for your answer hope allah will reward you and sorry if my english is not good hope you understand :)

Whenever I think of a "you have to do what I say" scenario, I think of movies such as Coming to America , where the prince meets his arranged wife, and the following dialogue takes place: > 00:19:13 Yes, your Highness.
> 00:19:15 - Anything I say, you'll do? - Yes, your Highness.
> 00:19:19 Bark like a dog.
> 00:19:24 A big dog.
> 00:19:29 Hop on one leg. Or Terminator 2 , where John Connor requests the terminator to stand on one leg. These frivolous, demeaning requests test the boundary of how far one is willing to go in regards to obedience. In Islam, a wife is required to obey her husband: > She is required to obey him in everything unless he commands her to do an act of disobedience. (IslamWeb ) So... **Question**: Is a wife required to e.g. stand on one leg, if her husband requests it? I would guess the immediate answer is "yes...", the husband is making a halal request, after all. Continuing "...but the husband shouldn't be making such a strange request", although the silliness of the request wouldn't exempt the wife from her obligations. I could imagine a man requesting something absurd like this, perhaps as a kind of joke (as in the movie examples), or possibly even as a test of obedience. Perhaps there's more to it. It may be that such frivolous, demeaning requests are another exception to the general rule. --- My previous question https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/35201/what-does-being-an-obedient-wife-really-mean asks about what ordinarily and generally would be requested of a wife by her husband. This question is about a specific, hypothetical example, which is intended to explore the boundaries of Muslim marital relationships. It's a thought exercise.

Sunnah.com sometimes will say (Al-Albani) or (Darussalam) how do I find classifications (For hadiths) by specifically Al-Albani? Personally, I want to see his ruling on a hadith in Bukhari.

In a legal marriage a mahr (dowry) is necessary and it can be delayed -even if this was not the usual practice in early days of Islam AFAIK- with different conditions according madhhabs and views. What if one of the spouses died while the husband has not paid his mahr yet. My understanding is that mahr is a due of the husband at least once the marriage was consummated -whatever this may mean-? I'd assume that the dowry would be given the wife if alive (or her inheritors if not) before dividing the heir. What if it is actually the husband who died and the heir doesn't reach the amount of the declared mahr?

When I've come acrossed the famous book of Shaykh al-Islām Ibn Taymiyyah which is ***Al-Aqidah al-Waasitiyyah*** (The Creed to the People of Wāsiṭ), it become a dream of mine that at any cost I need to read this book. But till now I couldn’t manage to read it. So I request you, anyone, who have it as full English translated PDF, just give a chance to read it. I badly want to read this amazing book. So, can anybody help me out?

I am trying to learn what mahr is customary or recommended according to Islamic faith, customs, or tradition. Our prophet's cousin and first male Muslim revert, Ali ibn Abu Talib (ruh), was said to have provided a mahr to our prophet's daughter Fatima (ruh) in the amount of 400 Dirhams. I learned this information from our imam but could not verify the source. Since we should follow the example of our prophet (pbuh), Is this information correct, and what would 400 Dirhams from back then be worth today in US $? Please provide sources. Thank you.

Is this hadith authentic giving a pair of shoes as mahr? ***A woman from Banu Fazhar was married with a pair of shoes being accepted as Mahr. Rasulullah (s) asked the woman: ‘Are you happy to give your possessions and soul in exchange for a pair of shoes?’ She replied: ‘Yes’. Rasulullah (s) then deemed this Nikah valid”.*** Sunan Tirmidhi Volume 1 page 152

I just want to ask, if after nikah, husband and wife had no sexual relationship and got divorced, does the husband still has to pay mahr to the wife?

I am a recent revert to Islam and was married three months ago to a Muslim man in Morocco. I live in USA. I was visiting the country and also visiting this man and his family to see if we were compatible. There were two witnesses and I had a wali but there was no marriage contract written and no mahr was paid and now I wonder about the validity of the marriage. He swears we are married but I am having serious doubts. I don't want to be married anymore because I think it was done in haste but he says he will not divorce me. I am so confused and scared to death that I will have to live with this situation and never be able to be properly married in the future. There was no civil ceremony and I can make no legal claims as a wife should with regards to financial support or anything. Am I married to him according to Islam? Have I committed zina since we were intimate after that?

In a discussion with my friend he said Islam allow man to ask money(dowry) to marry a girl. Is any thing like that.Please give me suggestions.

Some women feel that giving them money as part of the dowry is offensive in the sense of that the husband appears to be "buying" the wife, which is not true, but given today's society and how the world thinks (wrongly)... this is what we have to work with. What is permitted as dowry, besides money, for the bride? Sunni school of thought.

Assalam-0-Alaikum, I want to know **(with references to authentic sources)** that is the dowry amount (Haq-Meh'r) still payable to bride if the couple only did the Nikkah (then the bride went to another country) and they didn't live together for even one night and didn't even consummated the marriage and then they got divorced? I have heard that dowry is not applicable until the bride spends the night with the groom. Is this true?

After reading Muṣannaf Ibn Abi Shaybah, 29677, we get to know that the Prophet Muhammad PBUH gave his daughter, Hazrat Fatima (RA) the duty of managing the affairs of the household while he gave his son-in-law, Hazrat Ali (RA) the duty of managing affairs outside the house. Why then, according to majority of scholars, cooking and cleaning is not the duty of the wife? I know that the Hanafis say that it depends on which class the woman belongs to but I am trying to understand the opinion of the majority. I got to know about the opinions of the schools of thought by an answer here:- https://islamqa.org/hanafi/daruliftaa/7935/ They have said > You mention regarding the cooking of food. Firstly, a wife is not legally even required to cook for her husband. This is the case in the three schools of Fiqh and one of the two opinions in the Hanafi Madhhab. Now, if the husband comes and asks the wife to cook a certain type of food for him, then the wife is not legally obliged, but the rewards for doing so are great.

In response to this question , Ustadha Shazia Ahmad quotes a Shafi'i jurist, > “45.1 (Abu Ishaq Shirazi:) A woman is not obliged to serve her husband > by baking, grinding flour, cooking, washing, or any other kind of > service, because the marriage contract entails, for her part, only > that she let him enjoy her sexually, and she is not obligated to do > other than that. Rather, it is considered sunna in our school for > the wife to do the housework...[al-Muhadhdhab fi Fiqh al-Imam > al-Shafi’i] However, U. Shazia Ahmad still goes on to say, > A woman is not obliged to work, but rather, she is expected to take > care of her husband, children, and home. This is from the sunnah in > our school, and it is considered obligatory in the Hanafi school. In > traditional societies, a woman is honored and admired for her > efficiency, cooking skills, and cleanliness in the home. You will find > that these womanly duties, when done well, contribute to the safety, > security, love, and emotional stability of a Muslim household. Do not > undermine them for they are important things that affect the whole > family. She also ends her answer with a link to another Q&A about the obligation of obeying husband in everything . So, this leaves me confused: According to Islam (the Shafi'i school, in particular) is it a woman's duty to cook and clean? If cooking and cleaning are not a woman's duty by default, would they become her duties if her husband requires her to do them? (given that obeying husband regarding permissible actions is obligatory)

Why does Islam reject the current versions of the Bible and Torah, even though the Qur'an confirms the existence of previous Christian and Jewish prophets like Abraham, Moses and Jesus in the Qur'an?