According to Islamic law, are there any cases in which imprisonment is prescribed as a punishment? And what alternatives exist? I am familiar with a few such as flogging, stoning and limb amputation but I have not come across imprisonment!

Everything was created by Allah but then where did Allah come from? Is it haram to ask such a question?

What is religion of the Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) before become messenger of Allah? He is acting according of christian shriah or other Abrahamic religion?

As salam wa laiqum, Dear Brothers and sisters in Islam, My Father passed away on 5th Shawwal, 1442 AH (18th of May 2021). It was a sudden shock for every one of us, he left us without giving us any hint. Being His only son, what will be my duties towards my Marhoom Father? Secondly, I am praying for his Magfirah, but somewhere i feel that i am not doing enough. I want to know how my father is in grave, Is their a way to know that he is all right? Thirdly, My father passed away while i was in USA and by the time i was back in India he was already buried, i Missed his Janaza, For which i will curse my self till my last day. Is their a way to give Kaffara for this Sin? I request you all to please pray for his Magfira... Thanks and Jazakh Allah Khair Ateeq

Asslamoalaikuum to all of my brothers and sisters .. Well my question is only that i know when madhiyy comes out then you don’t need to do ghusal but if madhiyy touches to your cloth then we have to do ghusal or just wash our clothes at the point where madhiyy touches ? Plz answer simple that only u have to wash your cloth at the point where madhiyy touches or that you have to do ghusal plzz in simple english iam not good in English plz Answer It’s very necessary for me

As is known, there are six major books of *ahadith* used in Sunni jurisprudence. The Shi'a typically don't treat these collections with such esteem, and instead give preferential treatment to four of their own books of *ahadith*. I understand that the Shi'a and the Sunni can have very different ideas about who is considered a reliable narrator of any given *hadith*, which would account for a significant disparity between the two corpora. In addition, there is a general Shi'a rejection of the idea that any book compiled by fallible men can be considered "*sahih*", which flies directly against Sunni opinions of the books of Bukhari and Muslim. However, given that any individual *hadith* would need to be tried for authenticity regardless of the compilation it is in, why then would Shi'a jurisprudence so prefer the Shi'a compilations rather than the Sunni compilations; if my understanding is correct, each and every such volume would still be treated as a mixture of weak and authentic *ahadith*. I am passingly familiar with the Sunni method of determining the health of a *hadith*, typically by analyzing the *isnad* and judging the reliability of each individual narrator and whether any links in the chain are missing, as well as comparing it against similar *ahadith* transmitted via alternate routes. If Shi'a jurisprudence uses a similar method for handling *ahadith*, with the exception that a narrator considered reliable by the Sunni may be rejected by the Shi'a and vice-versa, then I don't understand the need for such disparate collections of *ahadith*. Is there a fundamental difference in the collection and analysis of *hadith* literature which would necessitate entirely different books thereof? If not (or even if so), why is there so little apparent co-mingling of the Shi'a and Sunni *ahadith*?

[Qur-an 17.64:](http://quran.com/17/64) >Allah says to shayton "and share in their money and children Qur-an 55.56: >Their beautiful mates were never touched by any human or jinn. Qur-an 55.74: >Whom no man or Jinn before them has touched; (Translations taken from https://www.usc.edu/org/cmje/religious-texts/quran/ Ayah 64 seems to allude to the fact that shayton the accursed will have hybrid offspring with humans. This allusion is corroborated by the reassurance that in Janna, female mates will not have been touched (deflowered) by jinns, implying that in this lower life (hayat adDunya) such a thing is possible. Further, I have an Arabic tafseer book, and the tafseer of this sign (aaya) makes it clear that such a thing is possible. In fact, according to the book, the mother of Bilqees, Queen of Saba (Sheba) was a jinn. I could translate the passage if someone really wants me to. So my question is, who are or were (if ever) the human-jinn hybrid children of shayton? Any info on how they could be identified? Any other tafseer anyone's read on the issue?

Islamqa.org says it's tazir: > Bestiality is absolutely unlawful and a major crime in Islam. This needs no explanation. > > The tradition related by Ibn `Abbas merely affirms that there is no penal punishment for the act. There are very few specifically prescribed penal punishments. However, in the event that such an act occurs, the perpetrator would be punished as per the discretion of the government. But Islamweb says the punishment is death: > Bestiality is a grave sin and a reprehensible misdeed. Allaah, The Exalted, says (what means): {And do not approach immoralities – what is apparent of them and what is concealed.} [Quran 6:151] The Prophet , said: "Cursed is he who curses his father; cursed is he who curses his mother; cursed is he who dedicates an animal sacrifice to other than Allaah; cursed is he who meddles with the borders of someone's land (unjustly alters the landmark to encroach upon that land); cursed is he who misleads a blind person away from his path; cursed is he who has intercourse with an animal; cursed is he who does the act of the people of Loot (sodomy)." [Ahmad - Al-Arnaa’oot said its Isnaad (chain of narrators) is Hasan (good)] > > The Prophet , also said: "If someone engages in sexual intercourse with an animal, kill him and kill the animal." [Ahmad and others - Al-Arnaa’oot said its Isnaad is Hasan] What is the punishment of bestiality in Islam?

I wanted to know what to do when scholars are divided on an opinion? Sometimes whenever I search whether a thing is halal or haram, scholars are divided on the opinion, some say it's halal, some say it's makrooh and some says it's haram, so what should we do in this situation? Should we go with the choice which is most suitable for us? And will that person be punished if an action was haram to do

I know that there are very different standards of evaluating the authenticity of hadiths in both sects. However, when there are no contradictions between a certain hadith and the sect's criteria for an authentic hadith, do Sunni/Shia scholars tend to accept the hadiths collected by individuals from the other sect?

With respect to the appearance of the savior, I ought to point out that in accordance with the perspective of Shiite, 12th Imam of Shiite (Imam Mahdi (a.j.)) is going to appear to save the world from the oppression. So my question is that **what is the viewpoint of Sunni regarding this issue?** In truth, do they believe in this matter as well? If so, who is him (according to Sunni)?

I have read that zina that requires Hadd Punishment, only occurs when the head of the penis disappears into the vagina. If it only penetrates part of it, then it is not subject to Hadd punishment. However what is meant by the head disappearing into the vagina? What is meant by partial penetration? Does the full penis have to be inside the vagina for it to be full penetration? Because I do not understand how deep the head should be in the vagina for it to be a full penetration. I am asking this because my boyfriend had his penis on my vagina then I felt pressure on my vagina as if part of his penis might have gone in but I am not sure if the head of the penis went inside or not. I know for sure his full penis didn't go in and He said it didn't and because it is my first time I can not tell. Has part of his penis gone inside my vagina? And if yes, is this full penetration that is subject to Hadd punishment?

When someone brings you harm and makes you suffer, and everyday you are suffering because of that someone, what does Islam say about revenge, and is it true what goes around comes around, will that person suffer later in life or on day of judgement as a result of what they did to you?

I know that drinking alcohol before Ramadan invalidates your fast. However, smoking isn’t the same I’ve found out? Does smoking before Ramadan, but not during invalidate the fast? Ps - I mean nicotine, not weed etc

I have read https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/821/can-jinns-be-controlled-by-humans , Can Satan or jinn do physical harm to a person? and Are Jinns real and can they harm you? but I have some confusions... Jinns has some properties: 1. The Jinn are from the matters of the unseen; we cannot see them. “He sees you, he and his tribe, from where you see them not” (al-A’rāf: 27) 2. The foundation or origin of our relationship with them is that they are able to whisper to us and entice us [waswasa]. Allah سبحانه وتعالى says, “So Shaytān whispered to them both” (al-A’rāf: 20) “So Shaytān whispered to him”(Tāhā: 120) 3. The Shayātīn do not have a compelling authority over man, except if man chooses to follow the Shaytān of his own free will. “You have no authority over my slaves, except he who follows you of the deviant.” (al-Hijr: 42) “And Shaytān shall say after the affair is decided: Surely Allah promised you the promise of truth, and I gave you promises, then failed to keep them to you, and I had no authority over you, except that I called you and you answered me.” (Ibrāhīm: 22) “When you recite the Qur’ān seek refuge in Allah from the accursed Shaytān. Indeed he has no authority of those who believe and place their trust in their Lord. His authority extends only to those who befriend him and those who associate partners with Allah.” (al-Nahl: 99-100) ***The Messenger of Allah صلى الله عليه وسلم would treat any material occurrence as a human matter, so long as no revelation came establishing that the Jinn had a relation to the matter. All matters were in origin taken as human affairs. If a dead man were found for instance it would not be thought that the Jinn killed him unless a text about such were found. Such was the case in the incident of the dead man found in Khaybar where the search was directed at who from amongst the people killed him, and did not extend to even the possibility of the Jinn having done so. Muslim relates in His Sahīh that Abdullah ibn Sahl and Muhayyisah set out for Khaybar out of severe fatigue. When Muhayyisah found out that Abdullah ibn Sahl have been killed and thrown into a well he went to the Jews and said, “By Allah, you have killed him!” They replied, “By Allah, we did not kill him.” When the matter reached the Messenger of Allah صلى الله عليه وسلم he said, “Either they pay the blood-money of your companion or they declare war (by refusing to comply with the Shari’ah rules).” So he صلى الله عليه وسلم wrote to them and they wrote back, “By Allah, we did not kill him.” The incident is well-known. Important to our current discussion, at no point did the question of the Jinn having played any role enter the discussion in any way. ***The occurrence of no material event, be it murder, theft, deception, or fraud, did the mind turn to the Jinn. It always turned to men, because the relation of Jinn is one of whispering and incitement, except if a text exists to say otherwise. Since no specific texts can come after the Messenger of Allah صلى الله عليه وسلم, all material occurrences are from men, not from the Jinn, for their world is different to ours, and their relationship with us is a relationship of whispering alone. Therefore if someone falls ill there is no connection of this with the Jinn. The illness is to be treated according to the Islamic injunctions, that is, through therapy. This treatment can be material (medicine) or through du’a and ruqya. As for the former it is like what came in the hadith from Usāmah ibn Sharīk that he said, “I came to the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم and his Companions who were as if they had birds on their heads. I greeted them and sat down. Then came bedouins from various areas and asked, ‘O Messenger of Allah, should we take medicine’? He replied, ‘Take medicine for indeed Allah has not made an illness except that he has created its cure, except only one illness, death.’ (Abu Dāwūd) So according to this properties... **Question**: How can Jinns be controlled by Humans? Although Sulaymān (as) was authority over the Jinn and his ability to command and prohibit them is a matter about which a text from Allah (saw) has come, thus we affirm it.

It is mentioned in Quran that everything in the universe has a purpose. So, why does Allah cover over 70% of the Earth with sea water that human beings can't consume unlike the fresh water that is helpful for humans? What is the hidden wisdom behind this? Is there anything related to this mentioned in Quran or Hadith? A logical or a scientific explanation would really help, thanks!

My question is about the issue detailed in this topic: [Inheritance shares don't add up to 1](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1408/inheritance-shares-dont-add-up-to-1) . Please read the whole message carefully though, this is not exactly a duplicate. To sum up the point, the Quran contains inheritance laws that specify the shares due to various members of the family of the deceased. Now, there are configurations where the shares add up to more than one. Now, as has been mentioned in the post I linked, several attempts have been made to fix the issue. The traditional answer would be to use the rules of "Awl" and "Usbah", that is to proportionally change the shares so that all of them add up to 1. Another approach is to keep the shares as stated in the Quran but to distribute the inheritance according to priority rules so that the shares add up to 1 or less. I am dubious however that this last approach works in general. Consider the case of a woman who dies leaving nor ascendants nor descendants, but only her husband and two sisters. Sisters is to be taken with the meaning it has in 4:176, whatever you think the difference is with verse 4:12. Then 4:12 and 4:176 taken together unambiguously state that in that case, the husband should get 1/2 and the sisters 2/3 which adds up to 7/6 > 1. If you don't add man-made laws to the Quran and yet want to keep the shares as stated, priority rules won't work here. Thus, the most rational way would be to reduce the shares proportionnally (that would be 3/7 for the husband 4/7 for the sisters in that specific case). For another example, you may consider the case of a man leaving behind a wife (share: 1/8), a daughter (share: 2/3) and a father and a mother (1/6 each) which adds up to 27/24. Hence comes the problem. To make sense, it seems that the Quran somewhat needs to be corrected; is other words, the command "give 1/2 to the husband and 2/3 to the sisters", stated as is, sounds absurd and either you conclude that the law of inheritance can't be applied or you're forced to correct it (i.e to literally infringe the original command) to apply the mere "mentality" of it. Please note that my question really differs from that of the post I mentioned above. I don't expect a comprehensive list of all approaches that have been developed to apply the law of inheritance. I'd really like the discussion to bear on the idea that the Quran's law may need some correcting to be applied.

In Islam we use the word Haram for things that are forbidden, but when we say Majid-e-Haram, why do we use the "Haram" word?

new revert here. I've been trying to wrap my head around prayer times and I've looked through salah times throughout the year in my location. For example, on one day in late June, when days are the longest, my app tells me the Isha time is 00:56 a.m., and the next day's Fajr is also 00:56 a.m. That would be the exact same time. How does that work? Am I supposed to do Isha and the next day's Fajr back-to-back? Should I combine them? Can someone explain like I'm five? I'm using the Muslim World League method of calculation, in case that matters.

After reading several answers on this site, https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/7926/is-music-allowed-if-it-helps-you-think-of-god-sunni-view?noredirect=1&lq=1 https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/7797/what-is-the-islamic-definition-of-music?rq=1 https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/39100/if-someone-is-not-distracted-from-islam-by-music-is-it-still-haram?noredirect=1&lq=1 https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40087/which-prominent-sunni-scholars-say-music-is-not-haram?rq=1 https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/30150/learn-a-music-instrument I get the impression that religious music different from the usual recitation of the Qur'an is often not appreciated but opinions differ. In particular, in the first Q&A, there are two views opposing each other; the negative answer not really being supported by authorative sources. I personally do not really see why Qur'an verses should not be set into beautiful music as it arose in the European (Christian) culture from the 12th Century a.D (6th a.H). I would like to split the question into three aspects: 1) Is there any explicit interdiction in Hadith (or in the Holy Qur'an where I have not found it)? 2) Have any scolars explicitly opposed to ornamental or choral music for worship? Who and where? 3) Would I rise anger among Muslim societies if I set verses of the Holy Qur'an in its original into (a-capella) music? The difference to prior questions is that it is not only about «music with a good intention» but the aspect to worship God the Most High and recite the Holy Qur'an by the means of multi-voice music.