I’ve heard that making wudu in the shower that your hair and feet must be dry or partly dry before marking abolition in the shower. So I’m in a standing shower so let’s just go worse case scenario. What if my feet was completely soaked can I still make ablution? Also what if the wetness of my feel like rolls of while being in the shower so the foot is wet but like not in large amounts?

As-Salamu 'Alaykum brothers, I have a pressing Question to ask in regards to the following verses of the Quran: > "O believers! Do not take your parents and siblings as trusted allies if they choose disbelief over belief. And whoever of you does so, they are the ˹true˺ wrongdoers" 9:23 > "And We have commanded people to ˹honour˺ their parents. Their mothers bore them through hardship upon hardship, and their weaning takes two years. So be grateful to Me and your parents. To Me is the final return."31:14 > "But if they pressure you to associate with Me what you have no knowledge of,1 do not obey them. Still keep their company in this world courteously, and follow the way of those who turn to Me ˹in devotion˺. Then to Me you will ˹all˺ return, and then I will inform you of what you used to do." 31:15 There are many other verses too that pertain to this matter. But my situation is that my Father is not a Muslim and he is a civil servant in the Airforce, and my Wife's Father is a polytheist (a Christian) and he works for a defense contractor. Doesn't this mean that I am not allowed to love them? there are so many other verses that talk about this, but I'm also confused because Allah also commands us to love our parents even if they are disbelievers. Please help me figure this out.

in Quran 21:33 and Quran 36:40 the verses mention the day and the night and the sun and the moon in an orbit swimming. What is meant by the sun not being able to overtake the moon? Does that mean the sun cant rise at night, or does it mean the sun cant collide with the moon? And I already know the sun has its own orbit, but in these verses the way the day and night and sun and moons orbits are mentioned seems relative to each other and it wouldnt make sense that the suns orbit around the galaxy affects the day and night Could the orbitting of the sun and moon mean from our perspectives? Like how we see the sun rise and set and the same with the moon? Or would this interpretation not work with the word "falak". Also what is meant by the orbitting of the day and night? It seems to mean from our perspective so would the same apply for the sun and moon? I'm really struggling to understand this and would really appreciate an explanation because this causes me a lot of doubts

HHS.gov write about mental health: > Mental health includes our emotional, psychological, and social well-being. It affects how we think, feel, and act. It also helps determine how we handle stress, relate to others, and make choices. > > ... Many factors contribute to mental health problems, including: (a) Biological factors, such as genes or brain chemistry, (b) Life experiences, such as trauma or abuse, and (c) Family history of mental health problems. Poor mental health and mental illness can lead to negative consequences, such as suicide and self harm, along with other unsocial behaviors, e.g. drug use, excessive drinking, excessive dieting, gambling, and so on. Included in this list are behaviors strongly forbidden in Islam (i.e., they're major sins). **Question**: Is mental health treatment sufficient to make permissible otherwise haram acts? It's widely accepted in Islam that *necessity overrides prohibition* (الضـرورات تبیح المحظورات) provided there is no alternative, e.g.: > ...If a forbidden insulin is the only choice, a religious leader or doctor should be encouraged to mediate and reduce the patient's guilt feeling and spiritual pain. **These advisers would use the doctrine of ‘the sanctity of life’, permissible in Islam.** It means that life must be saved at all costs. -- Bashir Qureshi, Diabetes in Ramadan , J. R. Soc. Med. 2002. While mental health treatment can be life saving, it doesn't usually take the immediate form "undergo treatment X and you'll be cured". Personal friends who have taken antidepressants report a "trial and error" nature, i.e., we can't know in advance whether a treatment works for a particular patient (if it doesn't work, try another medication). So it's not obvious that "necessity overrides prohibition" applies to mental health treatment. Likewise, I'm uncertain whether mental health treatment falls under the umbrella of the hadith: > The Prophet said, "There is no disease that Allah has created, except that He also has created its treatment." -- Abu Huraira , [Sahih al-Bukhari 5678] (sunnah.com ) Two prominent examples of conflict I've found in the medical literature are: (a) Muslims not taking medication during Ramadan, and (b) Muslims refusing to take medicine involving pork products. For example: > As ingestion of pork or any of its products is totally forbidden in Islam and it may be considered as committing a sinful act. So if this issue is not identified and addressed, then patients may not only stop taking their medications, and hence leading to relapse of symptoms, increasing hospitalization rates, and increasing healthcare costs but also lead to a poor doctor-patient relationship. -- Sabry and Vohra, Role of Islam in the management of Psychiatric disorders , Indian J Psychiatry. 2013. Also, surveys report unwillingness of Muslims to acknowledge and seek treatement for mental health issues (interpreting them as e.g. tests from God, or possession by jinn): > Even when Muslims have positive attitudes toward mental healing, social stigma remains strong. -- Ciftci, Jones, and Corrigan, Mental Health Stigma in the Muslim Community , Stigma, 2012. ------ This question arose as a result of Medi1Saif's answer to https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/35959/17163 .

Here it says > Have you ever wondered why the Children of Ishmael were free, and mighty, while the Children of Israel were still enslaved to the Pharaoh? Among the descendants of Ishmael, the Ark was eventually inherited by the Prophet Shuaib (Jethro), whose daughter Safura (Zipporah), a princess, married Moses, prince of Egypt … Moses served Jethro the Ishmaelite Prophet and king for a number of years, learnt from him, and was given guardianship of the Ark of the Covenant by him, and the staff of Adam from it, to go and set the Children of Israel free. Through the blessings of the Ark, the Children of Israel became free, and the Pharaoh was destroyed. > >The Ark stayed in the family of Moses with the Children of Israel from this stage in history on wards and they placed in it the relics of Moses and Aaron as well. Moses and his brother and their family remained the chiefs of the Israelites and eventually placed it back in Bait ul-Maqdis … ~ Hidden Islamic History of the Ark of the Covenant But it doesn't mention a source describing Shuaib's possession of the Ark specifically. Are there Hadiths, tafsirs, or other classical sources which mention Shuaib (A"S) having the Tabut-as-Sakinah? And then which Ark is described? Was it used and moved with the other arks which were manufactured? Exactly where is it now!?

Assalamu Alaikum, I am a student, and I work part-time as a game tester to earn some money. All the other games I test do not involve cryptocurrency, but there is one game I am currently testing that includes crypto. However, I am not directly involved in anything related to crypto (such as trading, promoting, or managing transactions). My job is only to test the game’s mechanics, report bugs, and provide feedback on gameplay. I am concerned because I know that cryptocurrency can sometimes be linked to speculation, gambling, or other haram activities. However, my role does not involve handling the crypto aspect of the game. Since this is my part-time job as a student, I want to make sure my income is halal. Am I still accountable for this, and is my income considered halal in this case? I would appreciate any guidance on this matter. May Allah bless you all for your help. JazakAllah Khair.

i remember reading about a battle in which the muslim army under Khalid bin Waleed laid siege to a city with a trench around it and Khalid RA had the old and weak camels slaughtered to fill up the trench and cross it. What was the name?

We know that Prophet Muhammad is the last of the Prophets (sometimes referred to as the Seal of the Prophets ): > Muhammad is not the father of [any] one of your men, but **[he is] the Messenger of Allah and last of the prophets**. And ever is Allah, of all things, Knowing. -- Qur'an 33:40 We also know that second coming of Prophet Isa will be a sign of the Day of Judgement: > And indeed, **Jesus will be [a sign for] knowledge of the Hour**, so be not in doubt of it, and follow Me. This is a straight path. -- Qur'an 43:61 This means Prophet Isa will return to Earth in the future, and in particular, after Prophet Muhammad who is the last of the Prophets. This is puzzling me. **Question**: How can Prophet Isa return to Earth without violating Prophet Muhammad being the last Prophet?

What is the ruling if the husband wants oral sex and believes it is not haraam, but the wife thinks it is disgusting and/or haraam. Does the husband have to just be patient and go without it, or marry another wife? Being patient may lead him to sin.

Does the following verse has anything to do with lucid dreams? >“It is Allah Who takes away the souls at the time of their death, and those that die not during their sleep. He keeps those (souls) for which He has ordained death and sends the rest for a term appointed. Verily, in this are signs for a people who think deeply.” > >[az-Zumar 39:42](https://legacy.quran.com/39/42) I'm so confused as to what the above verses mean. Does it mean that we don't have a will to induce lucid dreams? Are lucid dreams even real or not? Because Allah only Has the power to give us our souls back so we can wake up from sleep. I want some answers please!

I came accross Sana'a publication by Sadeghi (Sana'a and The Origins of Qur'an), but he only conclude ***some example*** of textual variation with standard qur'an. > Table 1 gives a **few examples**, in English translation, in which C-1 > differs from the standard text.38 The C-1 type shares a number of > variants He also, pointed many reading variants from Ibn Mas'ud and Ubay ibn Ka'ab. Which is not what I, or every layman, can understand. *(Is it affect the meaning?)* Have also searched this forum and found this interesting insight, https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40078/is-it-likely-that-the-sanaa-manuscript-was-an-accepted-reading-of-the-quran Adding up some more point in textual variant. But still, it's not complete list. I was wondering if any publication has been made, which include list of **all** difference found between Sana'a and the current Qur'an; in terms of overall meaning in english translation? Because I didn't find one.

Can we play recordings of adhan on mobile phones while doing activities like studying, working or sleeping?

There is a similar question on this. It is a commonly known fact that Muhammad SAWS and many caliphs punished apostasy with death. However, my question is **whether it is *commanded* to punish someone with death for leaving Islam**. There are many Sunnahs which are not necessarily followed, like having a beard, or cleaning teeth with siwak. The Quran has direct commandments on how to punish some crimes, like theft and adultery. But is the death penalty for apostasy merely 'good practice' or is it a commandment?

**Muhammad Peace SHALL BE UPON HIM** Islam teaches that Muhammad ﷺ is the Seal of the Prophets (Khatam an‑Nabiyyīn), yet Muslims also believe that Jesus (ʿĪsā, peace be upon him) will return near the end of times. The Qur’an emphasizes the finality of Muhammad ﷺ’s message: > “Muhammad is not the father of any of your men, but he is the Messenger of Allah and the Seal of the Prophets…” (Qur’an 33:40) The Qur’an also contains verses that classical scholars interpret as referring to Jesus’ eschatological role, such as: “And indeed, he is a sign for [the coming of] the Hour…” (Qur’an 43:61), understood by many scholars as indicating that Jesus’ return will be a sign of the approaching Day of Judgment. “And (as for) their saying, ‘We killed the Messiah…’… Rather, Allah raised him up to Himself…” (Qur’an 4:157–158), which is taken as establishing that Jesus was raised and will return. “…Allah said, ‘O Jesus, I will take you and raise you to Myself… Then to Me is your return…’” (Qur’an 3:55), which many commentators connect with Jesus’ future descent and eventual death after his mission is completed. My specific question is: How do mainstream Islamic scholars explain that Jesus’ return does not violate the finality of prophethood with Muhammad ﷺ, and how is Jesus’ return understood in relation to Muhammad’s completed message according to the Qur’an and traditional exegesis? I am looking for a doctrinal explanation that shows how the concept of Jesus’ return fits within orthodox Islamic theology without contradicting the finality of Muhammad ﷺ’s prophethood.

I know that every Muslim should wear a beard, but what can I do if I don't like it? Have I become a kafir? Because I have heard that dislike for at least one of the provisions of Islam is enough to fall into kufr. I don't dislike the beard, I'm just shall we say "not a fan".

Do i have to keep crying for 4 months 10 days in idat and i am not allowed to live a normal life during the time period of iddah is it compulsory for me to cry for 4 months 10 days

Aslem walkuim ​​​​​ I married a girl about 3 years ago the marriage lasted for about a year then we had a lot of arguments so we separated (we never got divorced we both went our separate ways) after 2 years off no communication me and her started back talking! My question is are we still married as far as deen? If not what are the requirements for us to get back together?

Is it alright to buy a deck of tarot cards for someone else? I do not believe in them, so is it okay if I bought it for a friend that would like them for their birthday? Or am I encouraging something haram, even if they don't share my beliefs?

Is it permissible to continue fasting and praying after spotting a small drop of blood caused by contraceptive medicine, considering that this is not menstruation but rather irregular bleeding that occurs intermittently over several days and stops after the initial drop? I understand I can complete ghusl and pray, but I am confused about whether this bleeding can affect my fast.

Translation of Quran 5:45 by "Sahih International" trio (Emily Assami, Amatullah Bantley, Mary Kennedy): > And We ordained for them therein a life for a life, an eye for an eye, > a nose for a nose, an ear for an ear, a tooth for a tooth, and for > wounds is legal retribution. But whoever gives [up his right as] > charity, it is an expiation for him. And whoever does not judge by > what Allah has revealed - then it is those who are the wrongdoers. "for them" - this is about Jews. As i know, this rule also applies to Muslims. (for example, in https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/45944 you can see that). But how do I know that this indeed applies also to Muslims? maybe there are hadith which clearly say that?