Is teaching interest based banking system in school allowed for a Muslim teacher?

Why did Allah(swt) not talk to other prophets like he did to musa (as) why did he send an angel i.e jibreel (as).

Assalamu Alaikum. In this world, we enjoy things like sports and games and many other things because of the competition—there’s the excitement of winning and losing, and we find fun in the challenge. My question is about Jannah? Won't things be boring if there is only one outcome of everything ,a WIN..., for jannah is not a place for loses obviously..., but as a wish is it possible to have kind of friendly competitions where we can win or lose, but with no frustration no proud , and all of it just for the joy of it? can we experience the fun of striving and winning in Paradise?

I have read multiple interpretations regarding this verse. I found that scholars have mentioned different sayings about the latter portion of the ayah "أنا له لحفظون" about who does the pronoun له refer to in the verse. Some say this refers to Prophet Muhammad S.A.W. I just wanted to know that is there any principle due to which the widely one is accepted is it refers to الذكر itself and if it's agreed upon. Please guide me I'm trying to clear my doubt regarding this for a quite long. Since there's an akhbari scholars saying that there is differences in interpretation of this ayah and therefore cannot be used as evidence for divine preservation. He also quotes Sunni tafsirs to support his claim. His arguments are causing doubts in my mind.

Here is the link to the various qiraats of the Quran Let me post the screenshots of sura 37:12 from 2 different qiraats and also their translation: **Hafs qiraat:** **Translation of the hafs:*** But **YOU** wonder, while they mock* --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- **Khalaf from Hamza:** **Translation:*** But **I** wonder, while they mock* You can also refer to the video

Where does our morality come from in Islam? From what I understand — and I think I may be mistaken here, which is why I'm asking — it seems that there are two views. One view says that morality comes entirely from Allah, and all our morals are based on the Qur'an and Sunnah. Without them, there would be no such thing as good or bad, because — according to this view — we wouldn't have any sense of moral purpose if we didn't believe in the Qur'an or Sunnah. The confusion I have with this view is: What about the fitrah? According to Ibn Taymiyyah, we have an innate sense of good and bad. But if good and bad are based entirely on the Shariah, doesn't that mean every aspect of Shariah is innately ingrained in us? Even things like not eating pork or lowering one’s gaze? The second view is that morality is innate, and we can reason about right and wrong even without divine revelation. The issue with this, though, is that it seems to fall into the “is–ought” fallacy — the idea that just because something is a certain way, that doesn’t mean it ought to be. If we don't have divine revelation, how do we rationally determine what is good or bad? For example, how do we know that harm is bad unless we already know it stops us from reaching an ultimate goal in life?

Can you dye your hair navy blue if youre not doing it in order for your hair to look black, you just like the colour?

I watched a video (I can't remember where I watched it) that says exchanging two different things of different prices is riba (interest) as per Islam, and it was told by the Prophet (Peace be upon him). I'll give some examples. 1. I give two $500 worth of phones to my friend and gain a laptop that is worth $1000. 2. I give two $500 worth of phones to my friend and gain a laptop that is worth $1500. 3. I create a mobile app worth $1000 and get a $1000 worth of laptop. 4. I create a mobile app worth $1200 and get a $1000 worth of laptop. How and when will these scenarios come under riba (interest) or not?

Assalamualaikum, I have been having doubts about this issue for a while and if anyone with knowledge can help, i would appreciate. It is said that we can not know how many have passed since Prophet Adam whenever i ask a scholar but there are some sahih hadiths which actually tells us he lived not that long time ago. Hadiths: •The period between Adam and Nooh (peace be upon them both): it was narrated from Abu Umaamah that a man said: “O Messenger of Allah, was Adam a Prophet?” He said, “Yes, and Allah spoke to him.” The man asked, “How much (time) was there between him and Nooh?” He said, “Ten centuries.(qarn)” Narrated by Ibn Hibbaan in his Saheeh, 14/69; and by al-Haakim, 2/262. •The period between Nooh and Ibraaheem (peace be upon them both): our evidence is in the continuation of the hadeeth of Abu Umaamah (may Allah be pleased with him) quoted above: … He said, “And how long was there between Nooh and Ibraaheem?” He said, “Ten centuries.” (Narrated by al-Haakim in al-Mustadrak, 2/288. Now, i know qarn also means generation but even though we understand it that way, it still doesn't reconcile with science. Since we have remains of ancient human communities that date back much longer time ago. We also know from books that Prophet Ibraheem lived 4000 years ago, between him and Nooh there is 10 qarn and between Nooh and Adam there is 10 qarn too. Even if we assume qarn is 10000 years, which i think scientifically impossible, it means Prophet Adam lived 24000 years ago and this still doesn't make sense. I would really appreciate if anyone has an explanation, thank you.

A hadith in Bukhari states that Ibn Abbas was 10 years old when the Prophet died: >وقال ابن عباس توفي رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم وأنا ابن عشر سنين وقد قرأت المحكم > > Ibn Abbas said, "Allah's Apostle died when I was a boy of ten years, and I had learnt the Muhkam (of the Qur'an). > > — [Bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:5035 ) However he is generally accepted to have been 13 years old. On what basis was the age of 13 determined? Isn't the information in Bukhari more reliable?

Otherwise known as queefn This can occur when air is trapped in the you know what and then is released producing a farting sound. This often occurs when I rukuu or Sujud and I was wondering if it falls under the category of passing gas and if so do I need to retake wudhu?

By default, the father of a woman is her wali. In case the father dies, this status will pass to either the grandfather or a brother of the woman - and here I'm already not sure whether a brother by only the same mother but a different father can become wali; similarly, whether the grandfather on the mother's side can become wali. I'm also not sure if only brothers and grandfathers can become the wali of a woman due to being related to her (eventually the state will be her wali if no eligible person is alive), or whether other male relatives will become wali in some order too. Thus my question: Who will become wali of a woman due to being related to her, and in what order?

Salam. I read in Tafsir Al Qurtubi that a man can marry off his slave according to majority of scholars (and this applies to both genders to Malik and Abu Hanifa RH, don't know about Imam Ahmad.) (https://quran.ksu.edu.sa/tafseer/qortobi/sura24-aya32.html) He says that Malik says it is not permissible if it is harmful to the slave. My question is- does this apply in the other madhabs, that it should be a suitable match etc etc.. or can a man marry off his slave, even to an untrustworthy and corrupt person? My confusion stems a lot here too- I read from Ibn al Mundhir al Shafi’i that a minor female can be betrothed by her father to another male **if it is a suitable match** (same with a male) without her/his consent being sought directly, so shouldn’t it be the same for slaves to be a suitable match, as it is somewhat a kind of guardianship.. (feed them from what you eat, shelter, etc..)? Thanks. Sorry if I went on too long. It is my first time using a site like this. I usually just stick to my curriculum and teacher

I'm in a relationship with a man of my age who is undergoing training in Armed forces. So he is not allowed to get married now. Because of my mother's insistence he had to go to army so that I don't have to face army and also he can get married to me. I want to get married as early as possible because I have felt satan and nafs are taking us and influencing us to wrongdoings. Both our families want us to get married when he gets permission which is in 4 years to come, and also want me to complete my mbbs and and another degree before marriage which is yet 5-6 years. Can we at least have marriage without their concern right now? Who will be my wali? If we get married we cannot expose it publicly because it is risky for his job. I want to get rid out of this sin and want to enter into a halal relation.

I am student the recently question comes into my mind that is > does Islam depends on math or math depends on Islam because according to my best observation i found that everything in our world depends on math for example: There are several places in Quran where math are used to describe the logic, you can't do anything in world without math even in daily routine eat,walk and other stuff all includes math.

In verses 22:47 and 32:5, it says a day in the sight of allah is a thousand years by our reckoning. However science says time began with the universe and is an intrinsic part of it. So how can Allah meaningfully experience time when its something he himself created ?

Assalamualaikum wrwb,iam 40 years old divorcee,followed Touheed won't follow hanafi.i want to get marry but parents are allowing to marry me to the person who is already in marriage divorce case is in court.u till court case close my parents are not allowing me to marry.can i take imam as wali and marry to protect myself from adulry

I enjoy learning about the philosophy of Averroes. Averroes was a contemporary of Maimonides (Jewish philosopher), Musa ibn Maymun in Arabic. Both were rationalists and great thinkers. Both lived in Spain. I know much about Maimonides but I am ignorant about Averroes, other than he was a great rationalist. Where can I find a good, helpful English blog which deals with the topic of Averroes and his views? Many thanks.

Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah, a maliki argued with me that some sahaba prayed with their hands on side, he mentioned these sahahba : -‘Abdullah ibn Zubayr [s/o -Sayyiduna Zubayr and -Sayyidatuna Asma bint Abi Bakr] -Muhammad al-Baqir -Ja’far as-Sadiq -Musa al-Khadhim -Hasan al-Basri [Student of Imam ‘Ali] -an-Nakha’i [tabi’i and student of ‘Abdullah ibn Abbas] -Layth ibn Sa’ad [teacher of Imam as-Sahfi’i who said about him – ‘kana afqah min Malik – ‘He was more learned than Malik’] -Imam al-Awzai [Mujtahid Imam of ahlus-Shaam whose madhab died out] -ibn al-Qasim -ibn Abu’l HakamIs He Provided evidence for one and it follows : Musannaf Ibn Abi Shaybah (Volume 1, Page 391, Hadith 3946): It is narrated that some of the companions, including Abdullah ibn Zubayr and Sa'id ibn al-Musayyib, prayed with their hands at their sides. The report goes: "عَنِ ابْنِ جُرَيْجٍ قَالَ: كَانَ ابْنُ الزُّبَيْرِ إِذَا صَلَّى تَرَكَ يَدَيْهِ، وَلَمْ يَضَعْ إِحْدَاهُمَا عَلَى الْأُخْرَى." Translation: Ibn Jurayj said: "When Ibn Zubayr prayed, he would leave his hands (by his sides) and not place one of them over the other." Please tell me if any of those companions including Abdullah ibn zubayr praying with hands on side is authentic or not. jazakAllahu khayrann

Assalam o Alaikum, I have a case which I don’t know whom to ask my husband cursed Allah in anger as we are going through financial difficulties, I asked him to seek forgiveness as saying that is kufr, he said those words loud in front of me, do you think it would have any impact of our Nikkah as I haven’t heard him saying for any forgiveness from Allah. And if he does want to seek forgiveness from Allah what would be the status of our nikah. Please enlighten me. Thank you