Q: After having bath (ghusl), sometimes semen releases after about 2-3 mins. Do I have to so the ghusl again? A. After ejaculation, do not take a bath before one of the three points mentioned below is done: a) Sleeping for a while. b) Walking at least forty steps. c) Urinating. If one of the three was done and then a person took a bath and thereafter there was a release of semen, it will not be necessary to repeat the bath but Wudhu will break. Washing the area and changing or washing the soiled clothes will suffice. This was on IslamQA and is it allowed to follow this rule Source- https://islamqa.org/hanafi/askmufti/45118/semen-release-after-ghusl/

> Then has there not been a [single] city that believed so its faith benefited it except the people of Jonah? When they believed, We removed from them the punishment of disgrace in worldly life and gave them enjoyment for a time.**(Quran, 10:98)** so the people of jonah are the only city that benefited from faith? why? does it because they fast 40days? **Bible Jonah:3(4-10)** >4Then Jonah began to go through the city one day’s walk; and he cried out and said, “Yet forty days and Nineveh will be overthrown.” 5Then the people of Nineveh believed in God; and they called a fast and put on sackcloth from the greatest to the least of them. 6When the word reached the king of Nineveh, he arose from his throne, laid aside his robe from him, covered himself with sackcloth and sat on the ashes. 7He issued a proclamation and it said, “In Nineveh by the decree of the king and his nobles: Do not let man, beast, herd, or flock taste a thing. Do not let them eat or drink water. 8“But both man and beast must be covered with sackcloth; and let men call on God earnestly that each may turn from his wicked way and from the violence which is in his hands. 9“Who knows, God may turn and relent and withdraw His burning anger so that we will not perish.” 10When God saw their deeds, that they turned from their wicked way, then God relented concerning the calamity which He had declared He would bring upon them. And He did not do it.

What if parents disrespect their children. Some time parents disrespect their own children they abuse their children. We often heared about the rights of parents but what about rights of children of age more than 20 who are still depending on their parents.

Husband isn't fasting ( Not fasting due to sickness, fever cough, medication) as he has medicines to take and he is having fever.

> Pseudoscience is a term used to describe a claim, belief, or practice presented as scientific, but which does not adhere to the scientific method. -- Wikipedia There's a host of pseudosciences (Wikipedia has a list of topics characterized as pseudoscience ). Some topics are considered defunct, e.g., phrenology , whereas others are borderline science, e.g. chiropractic . Most are seemingly harmless, but some are dangerous, e.g. ear candling resulting in ear injuries. There's also a risk that a patient may abstain from evidence-based medical treatments opting for alternative treatments instead. **Question**: Is pseudoscience generally forbidden or discouraged? I presume the answer would vary from topic to topic: Some pseudosciences involve fortune telling and astrology which are haram (jointly listed as major sin #46 in Major Sins by Imam Shamsu ed-Deen Dhahabi ), e.g., palm reading . I wish to ask about the topic in general: maybe it's best just to stay away from pseudoscience as a whole (perhaps engaging in pseudoscience would lead to fortune telling, etc.). It may be that pseudoscience as a whole is forbidden. Googling pseudoscience haram was not helpful, mostly returning Islam-critical webpages.

Is Zakah payable on the Mahr an woman get during her marriage? What if the Mahr is not fully paid? Is it an obligation to pay zakah on the portion of mahr that has been paid?

I have committed illegal sexual relationship with my boyfriend and made some videos. Now he put those videos on the internet. Now I am very much depressed about what I did. Is my tawba acceptable?

Asalam u alikum,
I started reciting from Surah yaseen in salah, later i realized after prayer that i have recited from middle of the ayat just after waqf lazim. I,e Inna nalamu ma yusiruna wama yualinoon. Till end of the surah. Does this invalidate the salat? If yes what are the rulings for immam?

Please give the answer quickly in my I.d address. Can a man do marriage with his mother in law after divorce of her daughter?

It is always stated in Islamic sites that men's awrah is from knees to navel. (for example http://islamqa.info/en/34976 ).
I have searched hadiths about that, and I have found many hadiths about covering thigh, you can see them in the url or in http://sunnah.com/search/?q=thigh , but I have found almost none hadiths that clearly prove that chest (torso, trunk) is not awrah. I have found 1 hadith: http://sunnah.com/tirmidhi/42/45 , in which somebody sees prophet naked in his house.
We can think that if that was awrah, prophet should say about it, and if he did not say, then it is tolerable. But the hadith does not clearly say that prophet did not say about it, we just can think so, because the hadith does not say about it, and since it is important thing, its narrators should not leave that hidden, so we think the prophet did not say anything about that, so we decide it is not awrah. But there is **probability that it was so much clearly known by everybody, that chest is awrah**, so it was even not told in the narration.
Awrah might be exposed by mistake and just who see it might must look at other direction or close his eyes or cover the awrah by hands etc. So, are there any other hadiths which show that some men at time of Muhammad showed their torso for long time and it was allowed or was not prohibited? Ie can you prove or disprove the decision of fakihs that chest is not awrah? Or can you say by hadiths that seems nobody showed his chest so that can be considered as proof that it is awrah? > (Some illustration for that it is decision of fakihs: > http://islamqa.info/en/171584 : "And he said in ash-Sharh al-Kabeer, > 1/457: The navel and the knees are not part of the ‘awrah. This is the > view of Maalik and ash-Shaafa‘i.")

I have seen the word **وليتلطف** in ***Surah Kahaf*** in the Quran written in bold text. I want to know: 1. The reason why this word is in bold? 2. What is the meaning of this word according to Tafseer or Ahaadith?

During a recent Jumuah prayer I heard a hadeeth about Abu Hurairah (RAA) > Abu Huraira reported: He met the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him, in the road of Medina while he was in a state of impurity. He slipped away and left to take a bath, then he returned. The Prophet said, “O Abu Huraira, where were you?” He said, “I was in a state of impurity and I disliked to sit with you while I am not pure.” The Prophet said, “Glory be to Allah. Verily, the Muslim is not impure.” Source: Sahih Bukhari 279, Sahih Muslim 371 Immediately after this, the Imam also quoted another hadith where the wife of the Messenger (SAWS), Ayesha (RAA) is reported to have said that the Messenger (SAWS) would **always** be doing dhikr of Allah, which the Imam said, implied that the Messenger (SAWS) would **even be doing dhikr in the state of janaba .** The Imam was implying that a woman can also read the Qur'an during her menses. Can somebody throw some more light on this, specifically: 1. Can a woman recite the Qur'an from memory during the menses? 2. Can she touch the mushaf while she is in that state and even recite from it? 3. If the answer to (2) above is no, can she read the Qur'an off her smartphone, where she can "turn" the page by touching the screen? Jazakallahu khairan.

I will be traveling to India with my mother for her treatment during this Ramadan. From What I have read , one is no more considered a traveler if he stays in the destination city for 15 days or more. Now I don't know the exact days I will have to stay there but the doctor has told us that my mother's medical procedure will be completed in 15 days. Will I be considered a resident in the assumption from the doctor? Being a central Asian I am a little concerned on how I will manage to take care of everything as I am not used to the hot climate in India especially fasting.

There is a tree that bears fruit e.g. grapes or mangoes. The tree has its roots in the neighbour's house and a large part of the fruit is also in the neighbour's house. But, some part of that tree has its branches all over a tree that is in my house. Those branches have fruit. Can that fruit be eaten? - I am looking for a reference from Quran or Hadith. - The concept of stealing does not apply here because the neighbour is aware. My question is purely from Islamic point of view.

I understand that the common concept is that alcohol is is acceptable in islam, however I am struggling to see how we consider it 'haram' considering the phrases used in the quran. > ... Indeed, intoxicants, gambling, [sacrificing on] stone alters [to other than Allah ], and divining arrows are from the work of Satan, so avoid it to be successful. — *Quran 5:90* When we compare this to other parts of the quran such as the forbidding of eating pork we can see a difference in language - **stronger more definitive language** like 'forbidden' is used for example compared to less definitive language like 'avoid'. > Prohibited/Forbidden to you are dead animals, blood, the flesh of swine, and that which has been dedicated to other than Allah - *Quran 5:3* I realise that these are just two passages but I think most passages from the quran that I have found reflect this point. In summary: * (1) in the quran why are there no references to alcohol being forbidden or *haram* and * (2) why should we consider it *haram* or not consider it *haram* * (3) Should we consider that drinking or taking other intoxicants is not recommended and should be avoided but is not *forbidden* like pork or non-halal meat. Please try to explain this in the context of quran rather than hadith (because different denominations of islam consider different hadith and the quran is the main text of islam).

" تَرِبَتْ يَدَاكَ " has different translations here : Sahih al-Bukahri : > "(otherwise) you will be a losers" - then where is "otherwise" in original (arabic) text? Sunan ibn Majah : > "may your hands be rubbed with dust (i.e., may you prosper)" - so this has contrariwise meaning i.e. like if dusting of hand is something good. ( also Sunan an-Nasaa-i : "may your hands be rubbed with dust (may you prosper)" ). if really dusting of hand means good, what logic is here? maybe working much and such getting dust? What does it mean here ? : > "He (the Holy Prophet) said: Let your hand be covered with dust, in what way does her child resemble her?" and here : > "(and it seemed) as if Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) did not like it (his sitting with the children) and said to him: May your nose he besmeared with dust, ..." - in these 2 cases i see it is/means scolding. and also general meaning of dust is not positive, but it is something bad. so how can it mean "to prosper" as it is translated in some hadiths?

If I am praying and mistakenly I forgot one ayat in the middle of a surah and complete the remaining part of surah (e.g. in surah al-Naas I accidentally skipped ayat no 3 and recited the rest of the surah as normal). So how will be salat main while I am Imam?

> Arba'een marks a "pivotal event in history" in which the pilgrims make their journey to Karbala on foot, where Husayn ibn Ali, the third Imam of Shia, and his army were killed and beheaded by the army of Yazid I. -- Wikipedia The hajj pilgramage can be complicated by lack of mahram (see https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/33135/17163) and the laws in Saudi Arabia ([How to independently visit Saudi Arabia?](https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/17438)) . It seems Arba'een Pilgrimage may be an alternative for a woman who is unable to perform hajj pilgramage for this reason. **Question**: Can a Muslim woman go on Arba'een Pilgrimage without a mahram? Of course, Karbala is in Iraq , which is having a war at the moment, and my country's travel advice says "Do not travel. We strongly advise you not to travel to Iraq because of the extremely volatile and dangerous security situation." But let's put that aside for this question. ---- *Update*: I was unaware of a Shia/Sunni split on the matter before asking. I personally am non-denominational, but answers should be of lasting value (not just for me personally). I originally (mistakenly) accepted a proposed edit to add the "shiism" tag. This has been corrected. I would also like to point out that I'm aware that it is not a kind of "hajj replacement". My motivation is that I cannot perform hajj due to lack of mahram, and I'm considering it as an alternative to doing nothing. I am simply thinking about it.

**I need scientific-based evidence Not Dogmatic one**
Is there any health benefits for Ramadan fasting ?
And if so does this benefits Outweigh the risks of this type of fasting I read a Research paper which mention some health setback related to Ramadan fasting
Do you have any scientific-based evidence support Ramadan fasting
Side note : I was Muslim, but now an Atheist

We know that 50% of our genes come from the ovum (in the woman). So why does the Quran give credit to the sperm and not to the ovum?