هل هناك دليل شرعي يخرج الضرائب من المكوس ذات العقوبة العظيمة في الإسلام؟ هل فرض النبي أو أحدا من الخلفاء دفع مال علي المسلمين غير الزكاة؟ Is there evidence that makes taxes different than customs that are banned severely in Islam? Is there any example for taxes in prophet era which were made a duty on Muslims except for zakat?

I just read a question that asks if eel is halal and it reminded me of something I always wondered about. Lobsters and crabs are boiled alive when cooked. That means it's haram to eat them right? I know its haram to eat wild animals, either from land or sea. However, I don't know if lobsters and crabs can be considered "wild" since eating them is so common. However, does the fact that the process of cooking them is so cruel make eating them haram? I have seen a few people ask similar questions to this on this site and the main answers I saw claimed that anything from the sea is halal (really? even sharks and whales?), which would make eating lobsters and crabs halal. However, fish die soon after they leave the water, and there is a process that one must go through when slaughtering an animal for food, it must be as quick as possible to prevent needless pain. My issue lies with the fact that the lobsters and crabs will be boiled alive. If eating them is halal, is there another way of cooking them or is it that they just don't feel the pain, and if they don't feel the pain how do you know?

As I understand it, Offensive Jihad which is the initiation of warfare against the kuffar based on their rejection of Islam is proven from the Qur'an, Sunnah and the Madhahib of the Salaf: Allah said: >"Fight those who do not believe in Allah or in the Last Day and who do not consider unlawful what Allah and His Messenger have made unlawful and who do not adopt the religion of truth from those who were given the Scripture - [fight] until they give the jizyah willingly while they are humbled.**(9/29)** and one of the 12th Century Judges of Muslim Spain, Ibn Rushd(Averroes) wrote: >They (The Jurists) agreed regarding the people who are to be fought that they are all of the polytheists because of the Words of the Exalted:
"And fight them until Fitnah is no more, and the religion is totally for Allah"(8/39)
**[ [Bidayat al Mujtahid 2/144](https://al-maktaba.org/book/21739/389) ]** however, there is a hadith which in my perspective seems to imply the opposite: >The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said: Do not desire an encounter with the enemy; but when you encounter them, be firm.
**[ [Sunnah Ref: Sahih Muslim 1741](https://sunnah.com/muslim:1741) ]** because if it is believed that it is an obligation to perform offensive jihad, then it would only be natural that one would want to encounter the enemy so that he can fulfil this obligation. But we are told to not desire that, and I'm not sure how to reconcile these two commands. So far I considered two possibilities: 1. The hadith is from the period of the prophet's life before offensive jihad was commanded, so it would have been abrogated when the order to be at war against the kuffar in general was revealed 2. the hadith was limited in scope to a specific expedition, meaning the prophet and sahaba were about to set off on a specific expedition, but for various and innumerably possible reasons such as muslim military weakness or other circumstances, the prophet wished to avoid a military engagement in that specific time. Since I have no idea which is the case or if at all, I beseech the experts at Islam stack exchange 👍

My question is about Adam (AS). 1) How do we know Adam(AS) as the first person of a upbringings even mentions in Quran that Adam (AS) was the first human being? 2) If Adam (AS) is a messenger of Allah, then who are their Followers? Because Prophets send to a group of people. 3) Quran mention Adam (AS) as a Khalifa but I never saw in Quran He was mentioned as a first human too (May be I am wrong). These question has no any intention about Islam, just ask for knowledge sake.

My apologies in advance for limited knowledge of Islam. I am writing about the topic of mercy, mostly from a Christian perspective, and trying to understand the similarities and differences in the way the two religions use the term 'mercy'. My specific question is whether showing mercy to other people is considered ethically obligatory or optional. I understand the answer may be more complex than just one or the other. Different forms of mercy may fall into different categories. Offering your kidney to save someone's life might not be treated the same ethically as bailing someone out of financial problems or forgiving someone for hurting you. All of those might be considered merciful, but some might be farḍ and others only mustahabb. It might depend on who the person is or on your relationship to them. But in Islamic thinking, what principles are used to decide? If possible, please include some authoritative sources for the answer. Thanks.

Its well known that the prophet Muhammad PBUH emptied the Ka’bah of its idols and stabbed them, >The Prophet entered Mecca and there were 360 idols around the Kaba. He started stabbing the idols with a stick he had in his hand and reciting: "Truth has come and Falsehood has vanished." **[ [Sunnah ref: Sahih Bukhari 2478](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:2478) ]** but we also know that the Meccan Idol worshippers were guilty of persecuting the Muslims and the Islamic Religion for a long time, so I thought its possible this action was a specific retaliation and not a General sunnah to break idols regardless of whether the idol worshippers are enemies of Islam. however, there is this Hadith where the prophet said he was sent to break the idol >Amr Ibn Abasa said to the Prophet: “Who are you?” He said: I am a Prophet I again said: Who is a Prophet? He said: “I have been sent by Allah”. I said: “What is that which you have been sent with?” Allah’s Apostle said: “I have been sent to join ties of relationship, to break the Idols, and to proclaim the oneness of Allah nothing is to be associated with Him” **[ [Sunnah ref: Sahih Muslim 832](https://sunnah.com/muslim:832)]** And the context of it indicates this is one of the primary missions of the Prophet and he did not qualify it on the condition the idol worshippers attack Islam first, so the generality of this statement caused me to consider that idol smashing is a praiseworthy sunnah regardless of the idolators’ enmity or neutrality. Can someone clarify on this Thanks

Does soul exist inside our body, does soul has any gender, how can I find that I have a soul , what is the concept of soul in Islam.

Muhammad Asad in his translation of Quran surah 23:12-14 , gives the following translation: > NOW, INDEED, We create man out of the essence of clay, {4} (12) and > then We cause him to remain as a drop of sperm in [the womb's] firm > Keeping, (13) and then We create out of the drop of sperm a germ-cell, > and then We create out of the germ-cell an embryonic lump, and then We > create within the embryonic lump bones, and then We clothe the bones > with flesh - and then We bring [all] this into being as a new > creation: {5} hallowed, therefore, is God, the best of artisans! {6} > (14) And on note {4} is : > ...The past tense in verses 12-14 (lit., "We have created", "We have > caused him to remain", etc.) emphasizes the fact that all this has > been ordained by God and has been happening again and again ever since > man was brought into being by Him; in the above context, this > recurrence is brought out best by the use of the present tense. (I know little bit of Arabic, and aware of there is not tense in Arabic in sense of time , perfect tense and imperfect tense is for complete and incomplete work respectively).The verb use in surah 23:12-14 is perfect verb, which is usually translated as past tense as mention by Muhammad himself, but in note{4} he writes "... is brought out best by the use of the present tense." Here I got confused. My Question is: 1) What Muhammad is saying in note{4}, 2) And Verb used in this surah is perfect tense, but can it be read other than perfect tense based upon grammar in this surah such as present tense, not as per English grammar, but by Arabic grammar

a Man from my country justa a couple of days ago, he began his 218 day journey to Makkah from India (kerala) BY FOOT, without using any mode of transportation. He thinks by doing so , he'll get extra rewrded and if he dies in the proces he'll be dying in a righteous cause. and people all around are Praising and congratulating him for his courage and sacrifice. Is this actually an act of worship?? that is rewarded ? I know walking to masjid has higher reward than going to masjid by a car.. if it's near.. but to hajj too? when it's too risky?... is this actually Rewarded??

Several Quran verses use the word "heart" where it should instead use "brain", while this can be explained off as a metaphor, phrases like this are used today e.g. "change of heart" which means "change of mind" or "a heart to heart talk" *the heart doesn't literally talk it pumps blood*, the **real problem** lies in the *Hadith*. For example, this Hadith is transmitted in a few of the books and is graded Sahih. > Beware, in the body there is a piece of flesh; if it is sound, the whole body is sound, it is the heart.(Sahih Muslim 1599a) The Hadith says that the **"the piece of flesh"(physical heart)** controls the whole body, which contradicts science, which says the **"brain"** controls the whole body. We also can't say that it is the soul that lies in the heart, because this Hadith is referring to the physical heart.

do we deal with the fact that Islam gets the simple function of body parts so wrong?

*Please no bs answers like, "we feel emotion in our heart so emotion is from our heart"(we also feel pain in our fingers too, does our finger have a mind of its own?)*

gnc tablets has a pack of 5-6 tablets and some of them has gelatin in it. Can i consume the one which doesn’t have gelatin in it or return them all?

I don’t know which books contain authentic information about the Battle of Jemal , with chains. please help thanks 😊 What I mean by authentic is sahih by the standards of Hadith.

[Islamqa](https://islamqa.info/en/answers/23496/hadeeth-about-women-uncovering-their-faces) says that this hadith is weak: > narrated by Abu Dawood (4104) from al-Waleed from Sa’eed ibn Basheer > from Qataadah from Khaalid ibn Durayk from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be > pleased with her), that Asma’ bint Abi Bakr entered upon the Messenger > of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) wearing a thin > dress. The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon > him) turned away from her and said, “O Asma’, when a woman reaches the > age of puberty, nothing should be seen of her except this and this” – > and he pointed to his face and hands. > > Abu Dawood said: This is mursal; Khaalid ibn Durayk did not meet > ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her). > > This hadeeth is da’eef (weak) and is not fit to be used as evidence. > The reasons why it is da’eef are as follows: > > 1 – Its isnaad is interrupted, as was stated by Imam Abu Dawood (may > Allaah have mercy on him) when he said, “This is mursal; Khaalid ibn > Durayk did not meet ‘Aa’ishah.” > > 2 – Its isnaad includes Sa’eed ibn Basheer al-Azdi (or it was said > al-Basri) Abu ‘Abd al-Rahmaan. Some scholars of hadeeth regarded him > as thiqah (trustworthy), but Ahmad, Ibn Ma’een, Ibn al-Madeeni, > al-Nasaa’i, al-Haakim and Abu Dawood regarded him as da’eef. (weak). > > Muhammad ibn ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Numayr said of him: His hadeeth is to be > rejected and he does not amount to anything, and he is not strong in > hadeeth. He narrated munkar reports from Qataadah. > > Ibn Hibbaan said of him: He has a bad memory and makes grievous > mistakes. > > Al-Haafiz ibn Hajar said of him: (he is) da’eef. > > 3 – Its isnaad includes Qataadah who is mudallis (i.e., gives false > impressions concerning the narration of the hadeeth) and did not > clearly state that he heard the hadeeth from another. It also includes > al-Waleed ibn Muslim of whom al-Haafiz said: (he is) trustworthy but > he was also mudallis and did not clearly state that he heard the > hadeeth from another. > > These are the faults in the hadeeth because of which the hadeeth was > judged to be da’eef (weak). See Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, > Majallat al-Buhooth, 21/68. Why did al-Albani grade the hadith to be authentic? Generally weak hadith are just disconnected or weak person in it , but this is one of the most weak hadiths.

It is known in the Qur'an that "[none will have [power of] intercession except he who had taken from the Most Merciful a covenant](http://quran.com/19/87) ," however it is not so clear on exactly who has taken such a covenant and thus who exactly has the rights of intercession. It is well-established (at least in Sunni circles) that Muhammad himself has such authority. The [intercession of Christ](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intercession_of_Christ) is a major doctrine in Christianity, with significant biblical support. However, while most Islamic scholarship I've read on the topic of *[shafa'a](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/7060/what-is-the-meaning-of-shafaah-sunni-view)* focuses (obviously) on the intercession of Muhammad, I've seen little if anything on the Islamic view regarding Jesus. **Does this right of *shafa'a* also apply to Jesus? As in, does Jesus have the right and authority to intercede on our behalf, in the same manner that Muhammad does?**

I heard from a shaykh (on youtube, Bilal Assad) that in a hadeeth it says that like martyrdom, the people who become hafiz (memorize the entire Qur'an) can intercede for their relatives and family members from hell, and some of my family members are not so religious it seems, and my sister might not even be a Muslim at all but Allahu alem (Allah knows best). I do not wish to make takfeer recklessly lest I become a kaafir. But I love my family, and I want them to be in jannah with me, and though I have hostility between me and some of them (except perhaps my sister), I know in jannah all hostility will be removed.

> It is Allah who created the heavens and the earth and whatever is between them in six days; then He established Himself above the Throne. You have not besides Him any protector or any intercessor; so will you not be reminded it says that we don't have intercessors ; there are other verses about intercession but how do i reconcile with this verse; is it talking to the disbelievers ? i found the tafsir ibn kathir https://quran.com/32:4/tafsirs/en-tafisr-ibn-kathir

> O you who have believed, spend from that which We have provided for you before there comes a Day in which there is no exchange and no friendship and no intercession. And the disbelievers - they are the wrongdoers. (2:254) Will there be any intercesion on the day of judgement , in this verse it says "no intercession" > Say "I am not something original among the messengers, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you. I only follow what is revealed to me, and I am not but a clear warner. the prophet will intercede so how does it not "contradict" some hadith.

Assalamualaikum, I have so much OCD . When I say anything while talking,while making dua and while reading namaz my mind makes lots of oath but I did not utter it verbally during saying but then I doubts whether I makes an oath verbally or not . This happens all the time . This is not in my control . I can't able to study due to this. Is kaffarah waajib on me for breaking this oath . Please tell . Do I suicide. I fear very much of allah and I do not want to go in hell. I hear that allah will not see his face who breaks an oath on the day of qayamah.

I met an celebrity lately, and found that he is a bad person, adulterer. Then someone asked me about him today, and I told him the truth. And also made aware some other girls about his bad intentions. A girl became aware about him after hearing it. But it made me thoughtful, whether should I told on his back about his bad characteristic, when it may help other. Or I shouldn't? What does Islam says regarding this. If it is not accepted in Islam then I'll repent to Allah, and try my best to stop this. So, should we talk about someone on his/her back to warn other if we are sure about his/her evil deeds?

What is the ruling if a woman finds that she is pregnant during her iddah period? Does the iddah continue on with the 3 months rule or does it continue until the pregnancy is complete?