Why quran chose the name or as some scholar suggested (arabized) the name of Jesus so strange that has puzzled the scholars of both experts of language and scholars of comparative study for centuries which lead scholars to propose different theories. It also led Christians to believe that Quran distorted the name and person both. In Semitic languages hebrew and aramaic his name has been recorded as yeshu' and in eastern syriac it's isho' but all have ayn at the end. The Arabic speaking Christians also just transilerated the hebrew yashu' as yasu'. But quran shifted the ayn and inverted the name. I'm asking because this is very odd because the name of every prophet from semitic languages have been arabized normally and maintained the original words and composition but it only occurred in case of Jesus. The gospel of Matthew and Luke said that angel said Mary that he will be called as Iesous which is greek of yesu' and quran said he will be called 'Isa. Is there any evidence to support that his name in his mother language was yeshu' or isho'? Is 'Isa a different name just like john the baptist is called yahya? And if 'Isa is arabized form then quran was supposed to retain the original words and their composition as every Semitic language have same alphabets but quran changing the name is very strange because I think that every name has etymology which carry significant meaning and when quran changed the name the meaning of the name was lost because Semitic languages are same just dialect and pronunciation differences?

I often recall my memory from the past when I was first recognised God. When I was a child and misbehaving and my mother said "Remember God is watching you" and reply "Who's he(God)"?. That memory casts me doubts regarding whether it's true that everyone is born with instinct to believe in God. I often think that is it possible that it's not true for everyone and often think that could it be the case that some believe in God not because it was in their instinct but that is what they were told since their childhood?

I'm working on Quran (using Quran's database ) and I've noticed that from like 17000 distinct words of Quran, around 3000 start with wa attached to the beginning of the word. Examples: وَیَتَفَکَّرُونَ وَیَهْدِی وَتَنَازَعْتُمْ وَقَصْرٍ وَکَانُوا وَالْمُؤْتُونَ وَالْجِبَالَ وَانْشَقَّتِ وَأَقْوَمَ وَجَاهِدْهُمْ وَجَعَلَ وَتَظُنُّونَ وَجَدْتُمُوهُمْ وَوَعَدْتُکُمْ وَاعْبُدُوهُ وَأَجَلٌ وَکَیْفَ وَسَعَیٰ وَنَهَرٍ وَیُونُسَ This means that based on what I've found online in Quran's scripture, near 17% of words have wa attached to them at the beginning. This makes lingual analysis of Quran really really hard. Why is it so? Is it a simple typing mistake, or is it a known Arabic or Quranic rule? Is it safe if I remove them from those words?

can we marry a non Muslim with misyar contract ? Is misyar even halal, cause i heard that some of the Islamic scholars said that it is forbidden.

There is a fictional character that I really like and read fanfiction about and in a lot of fanfictions he's in a relationship with another male character I don't read anything that involves sex or anything explicit the only reason I read it because I want to see more exploration of his character and I know that I will not be affected by this and I won't get a girlfriend nor a boyfriend because I am not interested in relationships (I don't even plan on getting married) is it Haram?

Bismillah. Alhamdulillahi rabbil-'alamin was-Salatu was-Salam 'ala Sayyidil-Mursalin wa 'ala 'Alihi wa Sahbihi Ajma'in. ---------- One of the conditions for Salah is covering one's Awrah. **Is Salah of men prayed with tight pants and jeans accepted?** **With other words, are tight pants and jeans considered to cover Awrah?** *Please, answer with proof from Qur'an and Sunnah.*

I once stole a piece of clothing in the hostel. I don't know who did it belong to. I don't know the owner. It's been years now. I have realized my sin and have repented to God. Cried and promised never to do such thing again. But since it's transgression against another human being so how do I fix it? I don't know the person. And there's no way I can find them. Is there anyway to compensate for it?

Thanks for reading this . I have a question for someone who has more Islamic knowledge. The question is that is it permissible to work for a company which sells data that can potentially be used for haram stuff like betting. The company doesn't provide any betting services it just sells data to anyone who would like to buy it. Please take a look at here http://www.coredata.eu/ and let me know if it's ok to work for them. The data maybe sold to betting sites that's my concern. please enlighten me thanks

Are their facial features, clothes etc. modelled after certain hadiths, if so which one? Also when did this start and how ISN'T this idolatry? Is it possible even that those aren't actual paintings dreamed up by an artist at some point but rather "paintings" traced after photographs of real people? (I've seen some photographs online, that looked eerily alike!)

Why is the tomb of Sayada Fatima Zahra(a.s.) hidden? I know she asked Imam Ali(a.s.) to not show her tomb for some guys who have tyrannize and abuse Her and Her family. What is the goal of not specifying her tomb?

I have some questions about the first wife of the Prophet. My questions are: - What was her name? - How did the prophet come to know her? - How old was she? - Who was her father? - Who was her mother? But, if I am only allowed to ask one question at a time, then that single question would be: Was the first wife of the Prophet a virgin before she got married to the Prophet i.e., was the first wife of the Prophet previously married/divorced?

I know that Allah raised certain Prophets status and preferred some over the other. But on the basis of this saying that because that Prophet was more noble and virtuous or saying more specifically that He committed less sins(minor) than the other. Is it Right? Obviously all Prophets are holy and infallible. But does considering one more infallible than the other falls under the verse "We make no distinction amongst the Prophets"?

Are there any requirements in Islam for the size of the knife used for qurban? How big must be a knife for a sheep?

The following is a hadith from the Prophet ﷺ >"The Quran possesses an external appearance and a hidden depth, an exoteric meaning and an esoteric meaning. This esoteric meaning in turn conceals an esoteric meaning so it goes on for seven esoteric meanings (seven depths of hidden depth) Where can we find it? On what criteria can esoteric interpretations be valid and accepted? How can we determine what's eisegesis and distortion?

Where did Yazid bin Harun get such an opinion about the meaning of the word "al-ama" in the famous hadith (below)? Such a meaning is not given in dictionaries: > The governed noun `amā' is derived from the Arabic root amiya the > basic sense of which is to become blind, to be obscure'. Amā' could > thus be translated "blindness", "secrecy", "obscurity" (etc.) though > it also has the sense of cloud', possibly heavy and thick clouds > (which hide and obscure) or (the opposite!) light diaphanous clouds. I do not think that Yazid himself invented it. > (1) The Sunan of Muhammad ibn `Isā' Tirmidhi, "Abu Razin told that he asked God's messenger, Where was our Lord before He created the creation?" to which he replied, " He was in obscurity (ama') with no air below Him and no air above Him, and He created His Throne on the Water'" (Sunan 4:351) (trans., J. Robson in Mishkat al-Masabih.. Vol. II (Lahore, 1975), pp. 1227 8 It is here noted that Tirmidhi transmitted this tradition and that Yazid ibn Hārūn al Wāsitiī(d. 206) said that "`amā' means that there was nothing with Him [God]"). https://hurqalya.ucmerced.edu/node/428 Such meanings of the word "Amā" as "nothing or emptiness or absence" are not found in dictionaries. Only as an interpretation of later scholars. Did Yazid ibn Harun mean the same thing, or did he have his own unique interpretation? I edited my post, but there are still no replies. Maybe my question has been forgotten, so I remind you of it.

If the father is a tyrant, then can the daughter use curse/nasty words (son of a b***h) against her father? I'm asking this because Allah says in 4:148 , > "Allah does not like the evil words to be said openly except from > anyone wronged. Allah is All-Hearing, All-Knowing." So, if a daughter has been wronged severely, can she use bad/nasty words against her father?

Salam, Pls, don't misunderstand me. My question/curiosity/doubt is: Why Allah's interference is not present in the area of the war or the before the beginning of the war itself to save innocent's humans irrespective of their religion? The other thing i feel there is no predestiny. Why would Allah allows these negative things or horrible? to be written in one's life.

My dad has always been rude to me and called me names, when I was growing up he would always hit me and even call me names… however,he barely does the things he used to do in the past. He just yells! one day he called me a really bad name and was screaming towards me which got me so angry and mad. I may still have a grudge from the past but when he called me that name I swore at him behind his back , but i instantly regret it especially when I approached him and he was being nice like nothing happened. He is known to have anger issues and may be bipolar but I can’t stop thinking about it and feel like crap not knowing how i said these things about my dad. It hurts me even more since I have been trying to search about this topic but every single article states that Allah will forgive only if my dad forgives me. However, I don’t know how I would bring this up and tell him that I cussed him behind his back. There was no one around but my sister since she shares a room with me! Do I have to ask for his forgiveness even though i said it in private? Do I have to tell him the things I said about him or just ask Allah for forgiveness? I’m so ashamed and I keep crying when I think of it. I know I will never do it again inshallah. Please help me this is driving me crazy

> So let the people of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed in > it. And those who do not judge by what Allah has revealed are ˹truly˺ > the rebellious.5:47 So should Christians judge by the Gospel, or not? And how can they use the gospel for judgment if it is wrong? > But why do they come to you for judgment when they ˹already˺ have the > Torah containing Allah’s judgment, then they turn away after all? They > are not ˹true˺ believers.5:43 Does 5:43 mean that Jews should be judged by the Torah? And how does the Torah contain the law of Allah if it is distorted? And why does the Qur'an in 5:48 urge Christians and Jews to follow their own path if there is only one right path? > We have revealed to you ˹O Prophet˺ this Book with the truth, as a > confirmation of previous Scriptures and a supreme authority on them. > So judge between them by what Allah has revealed, and do not follow > their desires over the truth that has come to you. **To each of you We > have ordained a code of law and a way of life. If Allah had willed, He > would have made you one community, but His Will is to test you with > what He has given ˹each of˺ you.** So compete with one another in doing > good. To Allah you will all return, then He will inform you ˹of the > truth˺ regarding your differences.5:48

Is it Permissible for me to Recite this Du'a "Allahumma Inni As'aluka Bi Anna Lakal Hamdu Laa Ilaaha Illah Antal Rabbil Aalaminar Rahmanir Rahim" Before Making Du'a i.e as a way of Invoking Allah.