Muhammad b. al-Hanafiyyah was a son of Ali ibn Abi Talib, in a Sahih hadith he mentioned: >I said to my father: Which of the people after the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) is best? He replied: Abu Bakr. I then asked: Who comes next? He said: ‘Umar. I was then afraid of asking him who came next, and he might mention ‘Uthman, so I said: You came next, O my father? He said: I am only a man among the Muslims. I find this hadith contradicting to the fundamental values of Shia beliefs, not only the view of Umar to be one of the best people after the prophet, but that they are even mentioned before Ahl al-Kisa for example. How does Shia Muslims interpret this hadith?

Salamun alaykum Shia brothers. I want to be educated on the matter of 12 imams. I don't want to offend anyone or mock any beliefs, I pose this question and set of points as I want to receive answers. My question is, did the Prophet (SAW) and the 12 Imams really make the concept of 12 Imams clear to their people? I contest this with 3 points: 1. We have 10's of 100's of hadiths and quran verses about Salah, Zakat, Hajj, Tawhid and Prophethood. Through this repetition, we're sure about the necessity of the 5 pillars within Islam. If the concept of Imamah was essential, it would deserve the same repetition by the Prophet (SAW) and 12 Imams in hadith literature 2. On the Hadith of 12 successors , it talks about caliphs instead of imams, doesn't mention names and says they'll be from the clan of Quraysh when the 12 imams are strictly from his (SAW) progeny. The Hadith doesn't make clear who these 12 successors would be. 3. Throughout history, many Shia sects came and went, and many branches still exist today. If the Prophet (SAW) and Imams properly conveyed Imamah to their people, why such differences between the Shia sects on the matter of Imamah? They all have their own Imams, with no set of Imams having more evidence than the other (According to my knowledge). In Shia sources, does each Imam narrate a hadith where he clearly appoints the next Imam? Thanks in advance for your answers.

Do any sources from Shia make comments about the condition of people before the blowing of the trumpet. I have failed to find anything on Al Islam about the kind of people alive at that time. Why I am asking this is because as per Twelver belief the earth doesn't see a day without an imam. > محمد بن الحسين عن الحسن بن محبوب عن العلاء عن عبد الله بن ابى يعفور عن ابى عبد الله عليه السلام قال كان على بن ابى طالب عليه السلام عالم هذه الامة والعلم يتوارث وليس يمضى منا احد حتى يرى من ولده من يعلم علمه ولا تبقى الارض يوما بغير امام منا تفزع إليه الامة قلت يكون امامان قال لا الا واحدهما صامت لا يتكلم حتى يمضى الاول. (Basa'iru d-Darajat of as-Safar al-Qumi) > > Abdu l-Lah ibn Abi Ya'fur said that Abu Abdi l-Lah (Jafaru s-Sadiq) said: "Ali ibn Abi Talib was the knowledgeable Imam of this Ummah and the knowledge is inherited. Not one of us passes away until he sees a son who learns his knowledge, and the Earth doesn't last for a day without an Imam from us, with the Ummah seeking refuge towards him So the doubt arises. The last twelver imam comes to finish oppression. However per Sunni belief the oppression before the blowing of the trumpet is the worst kind.

السلام علیکم ورحمة الله وبركاته I know that Shias don't trust most of the sahabah so they won't accept their Hadith narrations but obviously Imam Ali bin Abi Talib RA is an exception to this. In fact, we sunnis have a hadith narrated by members of Ahlul Bait from Ali RA that Mutah has been forbidden by the Prophet SAW. This is present in in [Bukhari](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:4216) and [Muslim](https://sunnah.com/muslim:1407a) , among other collections used by sunnis. In fact, even a Shia scholar, Abdul Razzaq alSan'ani RH has narrated this Hadith [here](https://sunnah.com/ahmad:1204) . (Note that Sunnis hold Abdul Razzaq and his Hadiths in very high regard even though he was a Shia). What surprises me, however, is that Shias still consider Mutah to be permissible despite this Hadith. Which begs the obvious question, is this Hadith even present in Shia sources?

I just downloaded the pdf of Najhul Balagha which a book regarding to the sermons of faithful Imam Ali(RA). I want to know is it a book for Shia sect. Not saying Imam Ali is only for Shia. Just out of curiosity asking because, Shias talk Hazrat Ali mora than anyone Also will I be sinful if I read it? Is there any possibility that I might get diverted to some false faith if I read this?

> "And whoever kills a believer intentionally, his recompense shall be > hell, he shall abide therein and God’s wrath shall be on him and his > curse, and is prepared for him a great torment” > > > *(Surah Nisa:93).* Muawiyah ibn Abu Sufyan killed respectively ordered the killing of Sahabah, e.g. Amr bin al-Hamiq, Malik bin Ashthar, Hujr bin Adbar, only for the reason that they were followers of Ali ibn Abi Talib. > “Ayesha said: ‘Mu’awiya you killed Hujr and his associates, By Allah! The Prophet told me ‘In the ditch of Adra seven men will be killed, due to this all the skies and Allah will be upset”. A contemporary Hanafi scholar, Mufti Ghulam Rasul, wrote in his book *Subeh al-Sadiq*, p.93/94 , that Hujr and his companions were killed because they refused to curse Ali ibn Abi Talib. > Tarikh ibn Asakir, V.12, p.227 Additionally, he instigated the poisoning of the first grandson of the Holy Prophet, Hassan ibn Ali. > > “Sho’ubi states that Mu’awiya sent a message to Jada bint al-Ash’ath bin al Qays that if you poison Hasan then I shall marry you to Yazeed > and in addition to this I shall give 100,000 dirhams. When Hasan was > martyred Judh sent a message to Mu’awiya asking that he fulfil his > side of the deal. Mu’awiya sent the money but said “I reject that > matter of Yazeed since I want him to remain alive, had this matter not > occurred then I would have married you to Yazeed”. > > Tadkhirat au Khawwas, p. 192 > > Mu’awiya reached an agreement with Jada bint al-Ash’ath bin al Qays, namely 100,000 dirhams if she poisons Imam Hasan. Allamah Zamakshari, Rabi’ ul Abrar, V.4, p. 208 > Qatada and Abu Bakr bin Hafs stated that Hasan was administered poison, via his wife Ja’da bint Ashath. One group have said that Mu’awiya have sent Ja’da the poison and upon administering this poison, Ja’da was rewarded”. Allamah Ibn Abdul Barr, al-Istiab > “This is commonly known among the people that his wife Ja’da administered poison to him upon the orders of Ameer Mu’awiya.” Maulana Abdur Rahman Jaami, Shawahid un Nubuwwa, p.303 Furthermore, he appointed his son Yazid as the ruler over the Muslims after him, who was the pure evil. In the light of the above mentioned vers of the Holy Qur'an, the Shia seem right to curse him, by asking Allah swt to deprive him of His mercy. Why can't our Sunni brothers agree to this?

How can i be shia , cause i an descendent from imam hussian as per sajra nama but unfortunately by father , grandfather they all follow sunni sect hanafi , but i want to be shia and a leader and scholer how can i start

In Sunni Islam adhan (اذان) is as follows: > اَللهُ اَکبَر (4 times) > > اَشهَدُ اَن لا اِلَهَ اِلَّا الله (2 times) > > اَشهَدُ اَنَّ مُحَمَّد رَسُولُ الله (2 times) > > حَیِّ عَلَی الصَّلاة (2 times) > > حَیِّ عَلَی الفَلاح (2 times) > > حَیِّ عَلَی خَیرِالعَمَل (1 time) > > اَللهُ اَکبَر (2 times) > > لا اِلَهَ اِلّا الله (2 times) But in Shia Islam there are execssive parts between two of the parts: > اَشهَدُ اَنَّ مُحَمَّد رَسُولُ الله (2 times) > > **اَشهَدُ اَنَّ عَلِی وَلیُ الله** (1 time) > > **اَشهَدُ اَنَّ عَلِی حُجَّةُ الله** (1 time) > >حَیِّ عَلَی الصَّلاة (2 times) The adhan that was recited by the Prophet Muhammad (P.B.U.H.) and his companions clearly was the Sunni version. But somewhere in history Shiites did this bid'ah in adhan. Now in Iran I know the Shiite version is recited. Who and when did this bid'ah?

What's the Sunni take on/perspective on incident of Hazrat Umar and bibi Fatima when he charged her during her pregnancy?

Well, Sunni Muslims believe in four Califs after the holy prophet S.A the fourth of which being the first Imam of Shia Muslims. However, they respect all The Fourteen Infallibles (not sure about how they believe in Imam Mahdi Aj. though) in Shia Islam according to both Quran (verses about Ahl-ol-Beit A.S.) and Hadith from the holy Prophet S.A. . Now the question is if Sunni Muslims agree on that the holy Prophet of Islam has given the title of Sadiq (honest and truthful) to the sixth Imam of Shia Muslims, Imam Ja'far Sadiq A.S., why they do not follow the teaching of him, being introduced as truthful by the holy prophet, instead of e.g. his students not being nominated to any attribute by the holy prophet S.A if I am right? To me, if the holy prophet has accepted such a position for 13 people after him among all his companion and children (children of Fatimah S.A. to be more explicit), God being talked about them as them being infallible (Al-Ahzab:33) then why a Muslim may follow others talking different than those holy and innocent people? I mean if they were wrong they were not of such a position in the eyes of prophet and for Allah, were they? And if they are not wrong why to follow others giving Fatwa sometimes in complete different ways? Hope that the question is clear enough for the answers also to be clear. --- **Edit**. To emphasize the point in question let put the matter as follows: If I was a non-Muslim and I was to become a Muslim, just after confessing in uniqueness of Allah Azza-va-Jalla and that Muhammad --peace be upon him-- is his prophet I required first to know which school in Islam to obey. If I have no precise knowledge of Quran and Hadith, when all Muslim brothers know their own school to be the right one, how can I decide which one to follow? Maybe there should be a hint for me to decide, based on Quran or/and Hadith equally accepted by all different schools of Muslims. If it is a relevant expectation, then does there exist any hint in Quran or/and Hadith accepted by all Muslim brothers? Shia claims there are some, and maybe many, one of them is asked about here, that Sadiq (truthful) is an attribute (and not a forename) accepted by all Muslim brothers to be given to Imam Ja'far-ibn-Muhammad Sadiq by the holy prophet --peace be upon him-- around a century before Imam's birth date, and that Imam Sadiq --peace be upon him-- is one from whom the majority of Shia's Fiqh is derived. That is Shia Muslims believe majority of their Fiqh is already approved by the holy prophet --peace be upon him-- when he called his son "Al-Sadiq". Is this hint acceptable by Sunni brothers? And if not, do they have their own hints to override this and the other hints used by Shia brothers? Do such hints exist for all the branches of the Sunni's, Hanbali, Shaafe'ee, Maaleki, and etc.? That is, if it is proved to someone that Shia Islam is not the one which should be followed, does exist a hint that explain which Sunni school should he follow then? In other words, the questioner tries to understand why Sunni brothers don't agree upon the Shia's hints, and that do they have their own hints then or not? **NOTE**: *I am trying to ask the question as neutral, I really want to know if these reasoning by Shia Brothers are considered as reasonable or unreasonable by other Muslims, and if not reasonable then why? And that if the answer to the previous question is no then what is their own reasonable hints (based on Quran and Hadith accepted by all the Muslims) to prefer their own school over the Shi'ite's based on them? This is a general question with a general scope but at the same time I have specified its scope to one single question about Imam Sadiq --peace be upon him-- for the question to meet the conditions of an acceptable question to Islam.SE.*

I recently came across the following Hadith and was wondering if anyone has a collection of Hadith from Imam Jaffar or Imam Baqir to Hazrat Ali in the Sunni Hadith collections. Would be very interesting to see that chain of isnad. ***Imam ‘Abdur Razzaq (rahimahullah) has recorded this Hadith on the authority of Muhammad Al Baqir (rahimahullah); the great-grandson of Sayyiduna ‘Ali ibn Abi Talib (radiyallahu ‘anhu). Muhammad ibn ‘Ali ibn Husayn (rahimahullah) reported that Rasulullah (sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam) said: “It is ill-mannered/discourteous that I am mentioned in the presence of an individual and he does not invoke blessings [salutations/durud] upon me.” (Musannaf ‘Abdur Razzaq, Hadith: 3121) ‘Allamah Sakhawi (rahimahullah) has declared the narrators reliable (thiqat). (Al Qawlul Badi’, pg. 311. Also see: Nataijul Afkar, vol. 4 pg. 36)***

ASO! I wanted to know the actual difference between shia and sunni nikkah procedures. I belong to a sunni family and getting married to a shia boy. We don't have any problems with the witness issue. In sunni's (living in Pakistan) nikkah is preformed in Urdu language which makes sense for me, but through my research, I found out that shia nikkah must be said in Arabic language (either by both girl or boy, or by any molvi/imam). So my question is, if that's the case (shia nikkah has to be in Arabic), is there any authentic hadith or reference in Shia books or in Quran validating this point that **nikkah lines must be said in Arabic?** Why can't we just say the nikkah lines in Urdu, our native language? I'd like to hear from Shia side and their reference from any Shia Imam or from Quran with the source. Thank you!

Abu Talib was the beloved uncle of prophet Muhammad (p.b.u.h.) and the father of Ali(p.b.u.h.). It is well known that how he protected and acted as a care-taker of the prophet from Quraysh . However, I heard that sunni Muslims consider him to be died as a non-muslim while shia muslims do not hold such and venerate him. ( Please correct/edit if any of what said above was wrong) **Question:** What are the sunni sources regarding their view and how reliable are these sources ? Similarly, What are the shia sources regarding their view and how reliable are these sources ?

I recently learnt that fadak was an endowment to fatima by the prophet of Islam and abu bakr confiscated it as per twelver Fadak came under prophet/muslims in 628 CE. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conquest_of_Fadak Zaynab bint Muhammad died in 629 CE. Umm kulsum bint Muhammad died in 630 CE. Twelver say fadak was endowment and not inheritance. Even if it's assumed if this is endowment are we accepting that prophet did injustice to zaynab and umm kulthum by not gifting them anything? Is this a slander on the prophet of Islam? I believe quran orders the parents to be just and equal in giving gifts to children.

I'm reading Syed Husain Mohammad Jafri's "The Origins and Early Development of Shi’a Islam ". On the term "Al" he mentioned: >The term Al, meaning nearer or nearest relations by descent from the same father or ancestor or a man's family or kinsmen, is used in the Qur'an twenty-six times in connection with the descendants of the prophets or those who succeeded them in guidance and special favour from God. A verse describing Muhammad as belonging to the descendants of Abraham has been quoted above. In another verse (IV, 54) we read: "Or do they envy the people for what God has given them of His grace: But indeed we have given to Abraham's children (Al Ibrahim) the book and the wisdom and we gave them a great kingdom." And about "Ahl": >The word Ahl, which is used many times in the Qur'an has almost the same meaning as Al, though it is also used in a broader sense in referring to the people of a town or inhabitation, a group, or followers. When used in conjunction with the term bayt: Ahl albayt, it refers to the immediate descendants of a family or such a family of the same "house", or bayt. In this compound form, Ahl al-bayt is used in the Qur'an especially in reference to the immediate family of Muhammad. In verse XXXIII, 33, we hear: "And God only wishes to remove from you [all kinds of] uncleanliness, O members of the family [of Muhammad] and thoroughly purify you." Jafri claims here that the word Al "is used in the Qur'an twenty-six times in connection with the descendants of the prophets or those who succeeded them", when I tried to search in the Quran for different stems of the word "Al ", most of which did not indicate "connection with the descendants of the prophets or those who succeeded them" but mostly indicated being a proponent of someone that might be even a Kafir like Muse's Pharaoh (for example see Quran 1:50 and Quran 54:41), however, some of the occurrences did indicate relatives like Lot's Al (Quran 15:59), however this can be interpreted as proponents too since Lot's family were the only followers of his. How should Al be exactly interpreted? When we say "Al-Albayt" we probably refer to Ahl al-Kisa or someone who was related to the Prophet, but does this apply when we say "Al-Muhammed" like in Tashahhud or it mean the proponents of Muhammed in the latter?

There is a saying attributed to the Prophet during the Battle of Uhud: >  فتى إلا علي لا سيف إلا ذو الفقار‎ لا > > 'There is no hero like Ali; There is no sword like Dhu-l-Fiqar' Now the Shia say it was said by archangel Jibril/a voice on the battlefield etc (something along those lines, correct me if I'm wrong). My question is what is the Sunni view on the authenticity of this quote, because the Ottoman Janissaries had this quote on their flags and they were Sunni. Also is it permissible to wear a zulfiqar (for a Sunni)? Not trying to mimic the Shia or Alevi.

Aoa, a shia person asked me this question regarding the Hadith in Sahih Muslim, book of purifications narrates from alqamah and aswad, Hadith 566/288/668 depending upon the print you have . The question is that the Shi'a person was claiming that a stranger and non mahram man was staying with A'isha R.A in her house and thus claiming she was indecent (nauzubillah) . Could you please explain this Hadith in context of this ? Thank you

Today I went to the masjid at the mall and when I started praying, a shiaa woman came to me and said that I was praying wrong. She was saying that I am not supposed to cross my hand on my belly and she also said that I am supposed to wear abbaya. After that I overheard her talking to her daughter about how sunni people are kuffar Do shiaa people pray differently? Do they think that Sunnis are kuffar?

The Twelvers (Jafari school of thought within Shia sect) believe that Imam Al-Mahdi will re-appear at the day of Judgement, while a small faction (known as the Mustali's) within Shia's Ismaili (also known as the Seveners) community believe that Tayyib will re-appear at the day of Judgement, where both Imam Al-Mahdi and Tayyib are in what these respective communities call as occultation (i.e. not visible to the sight but exists). Since the Sunnis believe in the appearance of a prominent Islamic figure at the day of Judgement before the Isa re-appears (as based on a number of hadiths by the Prophet Muhammad), do they believe him to be Imam Al-Mahdi or Tayyib by this?

In case of being the Muslim jins, are they divided in Sunni and Shia like Muslims? *Note: I am looking for authentic ahadith.*