**Assalamu Alaikum**. I just wish to ask one of my doubts. I have been pondering so long to get an answer to my doubt. Searched a lot but still couldn't get a satisfactory answer. Due to lack of answers, i came to know that I started losing my faith. I wish to share it here. Please answer or respond anything if you got this. My question is regarding the verse from the Quran chapter 67 verse 5 where it says allah made the stars to be thrown at devils. > **'And We have certainly beautified the nearest heaven with lamps and have made them thrown at the devils and have prepared for them the punishment of the Blaze.'** ***[QURAN 67:5]*** well first, its not a scientific view. and its not something a person who has knowledge about astronomy accepts. well to my knowledge, i know that this universe has got a grand design. even skeptical scientists wonder how such a grand design happened. (it make them wonder if God really made it.) everything correctly at its place. there is proportionality throughout the universe. and we even came to know that gravitational waves exist. so if our star (sun) were to disappear one day it would disrupt the design and we wont exist (because gravity). in such a case how could stars be thrown at the devils? So i started to see scholarly interpretation of that verse. hence i came to know that most of the scholars said that word **(مَصَابِيحَ)** which literally meant lamp refers to shooting stars and not stars. the below are some of the links where scholars says that it refers to shooting stars http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=324712 https://islamqa.info/en/243871 https://www.ahlalhdeeth.com/vbe/showthread.php?p=99813 https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/24290/what-is-the-meaning-of-bimashobih-in-surah-675 https://versebyversequranstudycircle.wordpress.com/2015/01/29/tafseer-surah-al-mulk-ayaat-1-5/ http://islamicnewblogaddress.blogspot.in/2016/12/interpretation-of-verse-stars-are.html if the above verse really refers to shooting stars. then its something which could be logically and scientifically accepted based on some points. -but if we were to look deeply on the meaning of the word **(مَصَابِيحَ)** by comparing with other verses we could come to the conclusion that it has to refer to stars and not shooting stars. below is the explanation why **(مَصَابِيحَ)** has to refer stars. > "15.Do you not consider how Allah has created seven heavens in layers 16.And made the moon therein a [reflected] light and made the sun a burning **lamp** ?" ***[Surah 71:15-16]*** > "And He completed them as seven heavens within two days and inspired in each heaven its command. And We adorned the nearest heaven with **lamps** and as protection. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing." ***[Surah 41:12]*** >"And constructed above you seven strong [heavens] And made [therein] a burning **lamp**" ***[Surah 78:12,13]*** in both verses 71:16 and 78:13 (which are mentioned above) the word **lamp** is translated for Arabic word **سِرَاجًا** ,while the word **lamp** from verse 41:12 is translated for Arabic word **مَصَابِيحَ** . So when we compare the ayaths we can see that all the three verses (mentioned above) starts by referring the seven heavens and then says about the stars created which are referred as **lamps**. so the **lamp** has to refer either *star or some type or stage of a star*. next lets compare the verses 41:12 and 67:5 >"And He completed them as seven heavens within two days and inspired in each heaven its command. And We adorned the nearest heaven with **lamps** and as protection. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing."[Surah 41:12] >"And We have certainly beautified the nearest heaven with **lamps** and have made them thrown at the devils and have prepared for them the punishment of the Blaze."[Surah 67-5] by comparing the above two verses we could understand that both verses mentioned *lamps as adornment and made as protection by throwing at devils* from verse 41:12 (given above) we came to know that the Arabic word **مَصَابِيحَ** referred some sort of a star.hence the Arabic word **مَصَابِيحَ** from verse 67:5 also has to refer some sort of a star. even when quran gives us a clear idea why it has to refer star, i couldn't understand how scholars could interpret it as shooting stars. scholars trying to interpret it as shooting star seems to me like they are just convincing people by lying. so how could stars be thrown at devils? i am not saying almighty cant make someone do it.we know that prophet Muhammad (saw) is said to have split the moon. but we know that its a miracle. but Allah gave order to angels to throw stars if devil comes. hence it becomes a property. there is difference between miracle and property. miracles never fits with the data but properties has to be logical with the data from our observable universe. i did heard an explanation from the website answeringchristianity.com that, it could be **pulsars** and the **radiations emitted from pulsars**. and those those radiations are referred to be thrown at the devils. but i felt even a mistake in that explanation, there is no preposition **'from'** in that verse. hence claiming radiation from pulsars seems to contradict, because the verse clearly says **"lamps thrown at devils"**. so my question is, is ***that a scientific error??*** i heard some people saying that, wait patiently till u get the answer. some day scientist would prove that verse. but i get irritated to hear such comments because. if thats the case, then i wonder christians are waiting for the day when scientists will prove the world that earth is really flat. waiting for your replies. * ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** ** Note: sorry, the explanation which I mentioned above is wrong and is due to my lack of knowledge. But I wish not to remove it, so that people who may think the same way could get the point and understand the answers clearly.

Assalamu Alaikum, Is there any sahih hadith related to performing Namaz-e-Janaza for one who committed suicide?

My grandfather said that someone (I think his brother) when he was dying he told my grandfather's niece (probably the dying person's daughter) to direct him towards the Qibla. Then she directed him towards the Qibla, and he said the Shahada, then he died, may Allah have mercy on him. Saying Laa ilaaha ill-Allaah or the Shahada before dying is very recommended, because: > The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “If a person’s last words are Laa ilaaha ill-Allaah, Paradise will be guaranteed for him.” > > Classed as Saheeh (authentic) But what about facing the Qibla? Is there any narration about facing the Qibla? Jazakum Allah khayran

What is the authenticity of the following hadith: >"Any of the female slaves of Medina could take hold of the hand of Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) and take him wherever she wished." (Sahih al-Bukhari 6072). How have our scholars interpreted this hadith?

Assalamu alaikum warahmatullahi wabarakatuhu, I would like to know if the days of fasting for Kaffarah of breaking an oath need to be consecutive or not. Jazakallah khair.

Assalamu alaikum, there is a app where you can earn money by watching videos and shorts. You can search different channels and watch videos without watching haram stuff. You can for example watch food videos/shorts, islamic videos/shorts, flowers, animals ect. For every scroll you earn money and then you can redeem. Is this permissible?

I want to know is playing soccer allowed halal in islam please answer my question with only yes or no thanks

Asalamualaikum, I am having really bad doubts if what i have done is backbiting or not. Recently, I have been thinking repeatedly if anything I am doing is backbiting. I got a tissue and was blowing my nose, some of the mucus went onto my finger. I then thought to lick my finger but I also thought that I would be backbiting on somebody while doing so. I then licked my finger anyway (I am pretty sure my intention was to backbite). After that, the person I was thinking if I was backbiting on them came. Please inform me if this would still be backbiting and I would have to apologise to them.

my Beard is very thick and coarse,and it is uncomfortable. can I shave if it causes discomfort and slight pain?

Internet tells me that Gregorian date 19th of July, year 2023 is the first of Muharram. But when I try to calculate the moon phase via perl, (module Astro::MoonPhase), it tells me that on sunset with coordinates for Mecca ($latitude = "+21.422510"; $longitude = "+39.826168";), the moon was already more than half a day old at sunset on **18th** of July. What's wrong? Are the results from the computation wrong, or am I missing something in the interpretation of the computation? (Maybe both?)

Assalamualaikum, So after I did Ghusl and I get dressed I noticed there is still maniy sticking on my skin. Does this mean it invalidates my Ghusl? Thank you in advance, Jazakallah Khairan.

Asalamulaikum I am a freelance video editor, and mostly 99% of my clients want video to have a slight background music. Video editing is my only job, and the videos I edit are halal. this is my source of income, and if I don't add bg music to it, they probably wouldn't hire me. Is it haram for me to do it?

I studied several religions and they all have "self-denial" as a main aspect mentioned in their texts. Such as: *"If you cling to your life, you will lose it; but if you give up your life for me, you will find it."* **Christians' Bible - Matthew 10:39** *"Therefore the sages: They place themselves last, but end up in front."* **Taoists' Tao Te Ching - Chapter 7** I friend of mine told me, that this is also the case with the Quran. But he couldn't tell me where it is written. Can you please tell me (cite with the exact source and line numbers) where this can be found in the Quran? Thank you.

> "Then travel in a part of the night with your family, and you go behind them in the rear, and **let no one among you look back**, but go on to where you are ordered." (Qur'an 15:65 ) Why was Lot (PBUH) told not to look back when the angels were destroying Sodom and Gomorrah? Why was it so important not to look back?

First of all, I mean absolutely no offence. And I am quite unfamiliar with Islam. Please be kind and forgive me for any offence. I was reading about the Taliban. What I understood is that elections are not in conformity with some religious law. So, they denounce elections. Tibetan Buddhists have Dalai Lama. They select the next one using their methods, which too I am unfamiliar with. I understand many Muslim majority nations have elected leaders. And Saudis have a monarchy. According to religious rules, how is the leader selected? And what do you call him?

First, I am aware that Paul IS a figure Islam, though he definitely doesn't occupy a similar position to Muslims as he does to Christians. This is all besides the point. This question stems from [a debate Bart Ehrman had with Justin Bass on YouTube](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LVUQAVQS1-U) . This question is similar to [another question I have on the psychology stack](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/questions/29791/is-there-evidence-of-cross-religious-visions-dreams-hallucinations) asking the question if there is evidence of people from one religion having visions, dreams, hallucinations, etc. about other religions, excluding Christianity. Justin Bass claims people only have Christian visions, namely that of Jesus and Mary. This question is different because it is assessing a separate claim made by Bass. He claims that it is unheard of in other religions that someone who once persecuted the religion would later join and champion the religion, such as the Biblical Paul did (he once persecuted Christians, then had a vision, then started spreading Christianity). Bass gives a couple examples of people who once persecuted Christians, then later became a Christian, and he seems to think this does not happen for other religions. So, my question is, are there any examples in the history of Islam where someone once persecuted or killed Muslims, but then they had a vision of Allah or Muhammad and converted to Islam?

I have seen many shi'as online cursing the sahaba of the Prophet Muhammad PBUH, many shi'as I have seen called them mushriqeen, many I have seen chanting bar Umar lanat beshumar in their ceremonies (sometimes Umar's name is replaced with Abu Bakr and the likes), I have seen them ritualistically chanting curses to the sahaba including by children. I have seen some of their religious leader say that anyone who does not curse them cannot be a shi'a. These make me believe that it is fairly common for the average layman shi'a to curse the sahaba and also because I haven't seen the contrary, of them praising the said sahaba. So I would like to ask if there are any info on how common ritualistic cursing of the sahaba is among them. PS: For anyone saying that the shi'as don't, I have many evidence backing my opinion. They do curse the sahaba. There is no doubt about it.

I understand that insulting any prophet is kufr > Additionally, scholars have agreed unanimously that whoever insults, disrespects or belittles any one of the prophets, may Allaah exalt their mention, will be a Kaafir (disbeliever). -Ruling on the one who insulted or belittled a Prophet - IslamWeb However, it seems to me that Muslims react very strongly when Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) is insulted, but don't seem to care much if any other prophet is insulted. **Is it Islamic to react more strongly to insults against Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) compared to other prophets?** Also, I understand that if someone insults Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) the insulter can be executed (punished with death). > The scholars are unanimously agreed that a Muslim who insults the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) becomes a kaafir and an apostate who is to be **executed**. This consensus was narrated by more than one of the scholars, such as Imaam Ishaaq ibn Raahawayh, Ibn al-Mundhir, al-Qaadi ‘Iyaad, al-Khattaabi and others. Al-Saarim al-Maslool, 2/13-16 -Ruling on one who insults the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) - IslamQA **Is it Islamic to execute people who insult prophets other than Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him)?** I understand that > To sum up, we prefer our Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) over all the other Prophets and over all of mankind, because of the evidence that has been narrated concerning that, whilst also respecting the rights of the other Prophets and Messengers and believing in them and respecting them. - The superiority of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to all of creation - IslamQA However, I don't understand why execution, punishment and anger should only be when Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) is insulted, shouldn't we care when the other Prophets and Messengers are insulted?

I have had surgery to remove breast cancer. My oncologist has advised chemotherapy for next stage treatment. She states that although surgery has removed the cancer, this is to mop up any stray cells that might be left behind. Benefits of chemo are 6% for disease free survival but there are many potential and permanent side effects to this. What is the Islamic standpoint on such treatment?

I was reading about Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti on wikipedia and the article claimed that he formally allowed music so that it would be easier for the new converts to adopt Islam. It is sourced from a book called "The Oxford Dictionary of Islam" written by John Esposito published in 2004. Here is shown what was in the book: Is this true?