I’m trying to identify an edition of Misquoting Jesus by Bart D. Ehrman that includes a Q&A section containing the following quote: >If he [Bruce Metzger] and I were put in a room and asked to hammer out a consensus statement on what we think the original text of the New Testament probably looked like, there would be very few points of disagreement—maybe one or two dozen out of many thousands. The copies I’ve checked (Amazon paperback and Kindle editions) do not include this Q&A. Does anyone know which edition or supplemental material contains this exchange, or where the quote is sourced?

One of the defining characteristics of Dispensationalism is the distinction between Israel and the Church. Israel, meaning the Jewish people, was given specific promises regarding the land of Israel, which are not applicable to the Church in any way but to the Jews only. As I understand it, Dispensationalists believe these will be fulfilled during the Millennium. I am still trying to wrap my head around the Dispensationalist idea of Israelology, by which they mean the study of the Biblical concept of "Israel." They would define it as an ethnic/genetic category, as the descendants of Israel, a.k.a. Jacob. In Orthodox Judaism, one is considered a Jew if your mother is Jewish or if you are a Halahically valid convert to Judaism, i.e. it is both matrilineal and by conversion. My understanding is that Dispensationalism, at least in its classical form, would exclude converts to Judaism from their definition of "Israel" (see for instance this article ). **What is unclear to me is whether physical descent is defined (by Dispensationalists) matrilineally or patrilineally or some mixture. For instance, if my maternal grandfather and/or paternal grandmother are part of Israel, am I?** I have not been able to find a source that gives a well-defined answer to this question. ChatGPT told me that the Dispensationalist theologian Arnold Fruchtenbaum, head of Ariel Ministries argued in his book *Israelology: The Missing Link in Systematic Theology* for a patrilineal-only definition of Israel, but without having a copy of that book, I haven't been able to track down any explicit statement to that effect. The quote from Jon Mark Ruthven cited in this article suggests that Ruthven might include either matrilineal or patrilineal descent: > The tradition of identifying a Jew as one whose mother was Jew may represent an attempt to preserve the genetic identity of Jews in the Diaspora. Before that, Jews were those whose fathers were Jews. During the dispersion, oppression of the Jews made it difficult to know who someone’s father was, due to the frequent rape of Jewish women by their oppressors, in times of war and peace. Conversions to Judaism, of course, complicate this purely genetic model somewhat. But the children of these concerts will marry Jews and raise their children to do the same. So Jewish genes soon predominate. However, the quote doesn't define what "Jewish genes" means. It surely does not imply that a genetic Jew is someone whose genetic material is mostly derived from the patriarchs, as that would almost certainly not be applicable to anyone at all who is separated from them by more than two generations. He also does not say whether the shift from patrilineal to matrilineal was legitimate as regards the covenants. To be clear, I am asking about the full Israelite identity, as Dispensationalists often separate partaking fully in the covenants verses spiritual blessings only. I am asking about those who are full partakers in the OT covenants -- is it common among Dispensationalists to believe that this is exclusively for those who are patrilineally descended from Jacob? How is this Israelite identity determined?

While I believe that some of the spiritual gifts listed in the Bible are still operational to us today in the Body of Christ, should the Apostolic sign gifts to do healings and miracle still be existing, or were ceased to be in operation once John had passed away? Looking to have those who hold to Charismatic Biblical Theology to answer this please

Revelation tells us that there is a Temple of God in Heaven, and that in that Temple is the Ark of his testament. Revelation 11:19 KJV > And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail. God directed Moses twice to make sure that he built the Tabernacle after the pattern God had shown him on the Mountain. Exodus 25:9 KJV > According to all that I shew thee, after the pattern of the tabernacle, and the pattern of all the instruments thereof, even so shall ye make it. Exodus 25:40 KJV > And look that thou make them after their pattern, which was shewed thee in the Mount. The word translated here as *pattern* could have just as easily been translated *model*. >H8403 תַּבנִיתּ tabniyth (tab-neeth') n-f. >1. structure >2. (by implication) a model, resemblance >KJV: figure, form, likeness, pattern, similitude. Are there any theological suppositions about this?

As a child, I had consistent nightmares about a demonic character who would offer me the power to fly but would demand blood from me as payment. These nightmares began at age 6 and continued until approximately age 12. I had several recurring nightmares again from age 19 until age 23, with essentially the same form: this demonic character would appear in my dreams and demand blood. These dreams became more violent and graphic, with the demon showing me his name written in blood on my thighs, and demanding that I etch his name on my body with a blade that he would offer in my dreams. Obviously, these nightmare have been deeply disturbing to me. I moved to Israel at age 28 (6 years ago). Until last night, I had not had any dreams with this character since moving to Israel. Last night, I had a similar dream, but the demon appeared as a dead and bleeding (but somehow still alive) character trying to drown me in dark water. I want to emphasize that I don't believe in demons (or angels). I'm not a spiritual person, and I'm only minimally religious (Jewish). But I'm wondering if anyone can speak to the potential significance of these dreams (if there is any). What do Christian teachings have to say about demons?

### Question During discussions of the Book of Mormon and Joseph Smith's golden plates, I often hear about "The Kinderhook Plates". What are these plates, what is their connection to Joseph Smith and the Book of Mormon, and what is their significance?

I'm reading *St. Seraphim of Sarov: On the Acquisition of the Holy Spirit (Conversation with Motovilov)* ([pdf](https://eeparchy.com/wp-content/uploads/sites/4/2013/05/ST.-SERAPHIM-OF-SAROV-ON-THE-ACQUISITION-OF-THE-HOLY-SPIRIT-Conversation-with-Motovilov-.pdf)) . For context: - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Seraphim_of_Sarov - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nikolay_Motovilov On pp. 5–6, Seraphim says (emphasis mine): > "Your Godliness deigns to think it a great happiness to talk to poor > Seraphim, believing that even he is not bereft of the grace of the > Lord. What then shall we say of the Lord Himself, the never-failing > source of every blessing both heavenly and earthly? Truly in prayer we > are granted to converse with Him, our all-gracious and life-giving God > and Savior Himself. **But even here we must pray only until God the > Holy Spirit descends on us in measures of His heavenly grace known to > Him**. **And when He deigns to visit us, we must stop praying**. Why > should we then pray to Him, 'Come and abide in us and cleanse us from > all impurity and save our souls, O Good One,' when He has already come > to us to save us, who trust in Him, and truly call on His holy Name, > that humbly and lovingly we may receive Him, the Comforter, in the > mansions of our souls, hungering and thirsting for His coming? > > "I will explain this point to your Godliness through an example. > **Imagine that you have invited me to pay you a visit, and at your invitation I come to have a talk with you**. But you continue to > invite me, saying: 'Come in, please. Do come in!' Then I should be > obliged to think: 'What is the matter with him? Is he out of his > mind?' > > "So it is with regard to our Lord God the Holy Spirit. That is why it > is said: Be still and know that I am God; I will be exalted among the > nations. I will be exalted in the earth (Ps. 45:10). **That is, I > will appear and will continue to appear to everyone who believes in Me > and calls upon Me, and I will converse with him as once I conversed > with Adam in Paradise, with Abraham and Jacob and other servants of > Mine, with Moses and Job, and those like them.** > > Many explain that this stillness refers only to worldly matters; in > other words, that during prayerful converse with God you must 'be > still' with regard to worldly affairs. But I will tell you in the name > of God that not only is it necessary to be dead to them at prayer, but > **when by the omnipotent power of faith and prayer our Lord God the Holy** > **Spirit condescends to visit us, and comes to us in the plenitude of** > **His unutterable goodness**, we must be dead to prayer too. > > "The soul speaks and converses during prayer, **but at the descent of > the Holy Spirit** we must remain in complete silence, in order to hear > clearly and intelligibly all the words of eternal life which he will > then deign to communicate. Complete soberness of soul and spirit, and > chaste purity of body is required at the same time. The same demands > were made at Mount Horeb, when the Israelites were told not even to > touch their wives for three days before the appearance of God on Mount > Sinai. For our God is a fire which consumes everything unclean, and no > one who is defiled in body or spirit can enter into communion with > Him." As I understand it, Seraphim describes prayer as "inviting" the Holy Spirit, and teaches that when the Spirit "visits" in a special way, one should cease speaking (even cease verbal prayer) and attend in silence to what God communicates. This sounds mystical/contemplative, and also resembles some Pentecostal/charismatic language about experiencing the Spirit's presence. How do Protestants generally evaluate this kind of pursuit? Specifically: - Do Protestants believe Christians should *seek* special "visitations" or intensified experiences of the Holy Spirit during prayer, beyond the Spirit's ordinary indwelling? - Would Protestants agree with the idea that, when such a visitation occurs, one should stop speaking and listen in silence for communication from the Spirit? - Are there particular Protestant traditions (e.g., Reformed, Lutheran, Anglican, Baptist, Methodist, Pentecostal/charismatic) that would affirm or reject this, and on what biblical/theological grounds?

On page 145 of [*Works of the Seraphic Father St. Francis of Assisi*](https://ia600408.us.archive.org/4/items/SeraphicFatherStFrancisOfAssisi/SeraphicFatherStFrancisOfAssisi.pdf) , we find the following sentence: >"IV. Fly from creatures, if thou desirest to possess creatures." QUESTION: What does St. Francis of Assisi mean by this quote? --- The context is: > ## FAVOURITE SENTENCES OF THE HOLY FATHER ST. FRANCIS.‡ > > - I. THESE are the weapons by which the chaste soul is overcome: looks, speeches, touches, embraces. > - II. He who retires into the desert avoids three combats: seeing, hearing, and detraction. > - III. Beloved, in this vale of misery may you possess nothing so fair and so delightful that your soul would be entirely occupied with it. > - IV. Fly from creatures, if thou desirest to possess creatures. > - V. Fly from the world, if thou wilt be pure. If thou art pure, the world does not delight thee.† > - VI. Fly, keep silence, and be quiet. > - VII. If thou excusest thyself, God will accuse thee; and if thou accusest thyself, God will excuse thee. > - VIII/ He is not perfectly good who cannot be good among the wicked. > - IX. Temptation, when it is not consented to, is matter for the exercise of virtue, > - X. Love makes all heavy things light, and all bitter things sweet. > - XI. The love of God is never idle. > - XII. Rich clothing and sumptuous dwellings, eating, drinking, sleep, and idleness, enervate men, and foster luxury. > - XIII. When I say 'Hail Mary,' the heavens smile, the angels rejoice, the world exults, hell trembles, the devils fly. > - XIV. As wax melts before the heat of the fire, and dust is scattered by the wind, so the whole army of the evil spirits is dispersed by the invocation of the holy Name of Mary. > - XV. Let every creature become more despicable to the heart, that the Creator may become more sweet. > > ‡ These *Sentences* were frequently used by St. Francis in instructing his Brethren. Some are his own, others are taken from the holy Fathers of the Church, or composed according to their doctrine. > > † The play upon the words is lost in the translation. 'Fuge *mundum*, si vis esse *mundus*. Si tu es *mundus*, jam non delectat te *mundus*.'

Matthew 1:23 uses the word [G3933 - parthenos](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/g3933/kjv/tr/0-1/) . Thayer's Greek Lexicon says it can mean: - a virgin. - a marriageable maiden, or a young (married) woman. He is quoting Isaiah 7:14, which uses the word [H5959 - ʿalmâ](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h5959/kjv/wlc/0-1/) . This Hebrew word is defined as: - young woman (ripe sexually; maid or newly married). Almost all English translations render it as "virgin". Whether it's "virgin", "maid", "marriageable maiden", "newly married", or whatever, it really doesn't make much difference, as Matthew clearly provides the detail that *is* significant: - 1:18 "*with child of the Holy Ghost*". - 1:20 "*that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost*". It's obvious why the Catholic Church (Roman or Orthodox) would want "virgin" to be the translation, but why do any other Christian denominations care about it? --- # Note that this is not asking about the Roman/Orthodox position, nor is it asking for what the "correct" translation is. (Yes, I know it's bad form to shout like that, but too many people don't seem to notice it otherwise.) It is asking why *non-Catholic* denominations also seem to believe the "virgin" translation is important and significant. It is similar to, but not a duplicate of [*Why was it necessary for Mary to be a virgin?*](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2414/why-was-it-necessary-for-mary-to-be-a-virgin) , as that was too broadly scoped, and was doctrinal rather than about translation.

In apocalyptic works, such as Revelation or the later chapters of Daniel, there is often vivid imagery meant to symbolize other things, especially real-world events (either historical or future). Given the cryptic nature of such passages, they are often the subject of many diverse and conflicting interpretations. One of the most famous such disputes is over the 1000-year period in Revelation 20, which most premillennialists and some postmillennialists take a literal duration of time for the described period, while others take the length of time as symbolic. **My question is whether there is precedent for a vision containing of a definite period of time, where the duration is clearly intended by the author to be taken nonliterally.** As far as I am aware, there is no passage in the biblical apocalyptic texts which mentions a definite period of time such that Christians *uncontroversially* interpret the duration nonliterally. However, I am largely unfamiliar with extra biblical apocalyptic literature. There is a lot of it preserved from the intertestamental period and first couple of centuries AD, but of this the only portions I read are the Septuagint's additions to Esther and the Shepherd of Hermas. **I am looking for any example of an apocalyptic book with these three properties:** 1. Has a definite period of time described in the vision, i.e. with a number and a clear unit, such as "1000 years" or "42 months", or whatever number and unit of time; 2. The intended meaning of that definite period of time is made explicit somewhere in the book. (If there is an alternative means by which the intended meaning could be clear and uncontested, that would also be acceptable); 3. The length of time of the real period of time does not correspond to the time period given in the vision. I am especially interested to see any example where there isn't a correspondence of one unit of time with another, such as days in the vision equally years in real life. (Such a book, of course, ought to be one which might be found in a Christian context, i.e. either written by Christians for Christians or originating from intertestamental Judaism.) Something that isn't a period of time being used for a period of time is not what I am looking for, such as the cows representing years in Genesis 41:3-4. However, it would be a valid example if a time interval were symbolic for something nontemporal, such as 7 years in the vision representing 7 cows in real life.

The Baltimore Catechism says: > "God made me to know him, to love him, and to serve him in this world and to be happy with him forever in the next." Many Catholics have this ingrained in their brains, even if they've forgotten the other 500 things in the Catechism. What do all other denominations who have catechisms (i.e. Westminster Catechism) consider the meaning of life to be in their catechisms?

In both the **Roman Catholic** and **Eastern Orthodox** traditions, the first seven Ecumenical Councils are regarded as being guided by the Holy Spirit, and their dogmatic definitions (the Creeds) are considered infallible. The Catholic catechism states: > *The **infallibility** promised to the Church **is also present in the body of bishops when**, together with Peter's successor, **they exercise the supreme Magisterium," above all in an Ecumenical Council.** When the Church through its supreme Magisterium proposes a doctrine "for belief as being divinely revealed," and as the teaching of Christ, the definitions "must be adhered to with the obedience of faith." **This infallibility extends as far as the deposit of divine Revelation itself**.* The Eastern Orthodox view is the following: > *The Church venerates the **Holy Fathers of the Ecumenical Councils** because Christ has established them as “lights upon the earth,” guiding us to the true Faith. “Adorned with the robe of truth,” the doctrine of the Fathers, based upon the preaching of the Apostles, has established one faith for the Church. The Ecumenical Councils, are the highest authority in the Church. **Such Councils**, **guided by** the grace of **the Holy Spirit**, and accepted by the Church, **are infallible**.* However, a direct comparison between the original Creed of Nicaea (325 AD) and the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed (381 AD) reveals what appears to be a reversal of technical terminology.

The Anathema of "hypostasis"

The original 325 Creed concluded with a series of anathemas. The final clause states: > *"But those who say: 'There was a time when he was not'... or that the > Son of God is of a different **hypostasis** (ὑποστάσεως) or substance > (οὐσίας)... the holy catholic and apostolic church anathematizes."* In 325, ***hypostasis*** was synonymous with ***ousia*** (essence). To claim the Son was a different hypostasis than the Father was a mark of Arianism. Yet, by the Council of 381, this anathema was removed, and "Orthodoxy" began to require the confession of three hypostases (the Cappadocian formula). ---------- If these Creeds are ***infallible*** and ***Spirit-led***, how do theologians address the following: - **The Problem of Reversal:** How can a document be "infallible" if a later council must remove an anathema and adopt the very terminology (***different hypostases***) that was previously condemned? - **The Problem of Anachronism:** If the definition of hypostasis was "refined" or changed in 381, then it seems anachronistic to read these later technical distinctions back into the 325 Council, or even into the Biblical text itself. Does this imply that "Orthodoxy" is a moving target of vocabulary rather than a static "deposit of faith"? I am looking for answers that cite reputable theologians regarding how the Church maintains the "immutability" of truth while essentially "correcting" or radically expanding its infallible formulas.

If a woman does not reach the climax in the marital act at the time when the husband achieves it (he achieves it before she does), is it morally permissible for her to be stimulated (by herself or her husband) until she achieves it? I am interested in the Catholic viewpoint.

The Book of Enoch mentions Gadreel as one of the Watchers, but the specific claim that Gadreel led Eve astray appears in 1 Enoch 69:6. Here's the passage from the Book of Enoch that mentions Gadreel: #### 1 Enoch 69:6 (from the Ethiopic text): >"And the third was named Gadreel: he it is who showed the children of men all the blows of death, and he led astray Eve, and showed the weapons of death to the sons of men." This passage suggests that Gadreel was responsible for leading Eve astray, which contrasts with the Genesis account where the serpent is the one who tempts Eve. #### Context of the Passage - In 1 Enoch, the Watchers are fallen angels who descended to Earth and corrupted humanity. They taught forbidden knowledge to humans, including how to make weapons of war, astrology, and the "secrets" of the heavens. - The reference to Gadreel is part of a broader narrative that associates the Watchers with the downfall of humankind, which includes the temptation of Eve. This is a key divergence from the canonical Genesis story where it is explicitly the serpent (often identified with Satan) who deceives Eve. The role of Gadreel in this context highlights the Book of Enoch's unique interpretation of the fall, is this the reason why it was excluded from the Bible, as it conflicts with the established narrative in canonical texts.

If Moses was of the tribe of Levi from both parents Exodus 2:1-3, and he never lived in Judah/Judea, in what way was he a Jew/Judean G2453 or "Jewish"? I have an understanding based on crystal clear scripture, and I've been told it's a false interpretation, so I am here looking for actual experts who can offer sound scholarship. Any takers?

In my country, the dominant religion promotes astrology a lot. But I have heard that it is a sin in Christianity. I was very stressed lately and spent a lot of money on astrologers. I never got any reasonable answers. I have been in serious trouble earlier in life due to guidance by astrologers. The origins of astrology are extremely dubious! Why is astrology considered a sin in Christianity?

> Now the serpent was shrewder than any of the wild animals that the > Lord God had made. He said to the woman, “Is it really true that God > said, ‘You must not eat from any tree of the orchard’?” Genesis 3:1 > (NET) I'm wondering what precisely was Satan's motivation to deceive Eve into disobeying God. I'm assuming the answer is in the context provided in the previous two chapters of Genesis, for example: > Then God said, “Let us make humankind in our image, after our > likeness, **so they may rule** over the fish of the sea and the birds of > the air, over the cattle, and **over all the earth**, and over all the > creatures that move on the earth.” Genesis 1:26 (NET) I'm thinking it's mostly related to man's authority over the earth - perhaps Satan saw an opportunity to have his own domain, and to rule it using the authority God had delegated to man, thus he usurped their authority. But there's some problems with this: - The authority to rule over the earth was only given to mankind. Satan didn't have a physical, human body (he wasn't mankind), so how was he planning to wield this authority? - Since the Bible does not describe a rebellion of satan prior to Eden, I'm assuming that satan's attempt to deceive Eve was actually his first rebellion against God... So, as described in Ezekiel 28:13-19, satan already held a high rank in God's kingdom as a cherub before he rebelled. What was so enticing about having authority over tiny planet Earth in God's universe compared to being so close to Yahweh and already having a certain amount of delegated authority as a cherub? That doesn't make sense to me (to forfeit so much to gain what Adam and Eve had). If anyone has a similar or different take on **what exactly satan's primary motivation to deceive Eve was** I'm interested to read it and learn from it (please base your answer on Scripture references and not personal opinion). Also, in my two bullets points I was only sharing my current thoughts about it - don't feel the need to engage with them if they are not related to your answer.

I often have problems with the Apostle's Creed due to its inclusion of the resurrection of the body and the "virginity" of Mary - things that are (to my knowledge) debatable. I found another creed which is much more metaphorical in the small brochure in a prayer/Song book, but I forgot to photograph it. What (other) widely accepted creeds are there, that do not suppose Mary's virginity or bodily resurrection, and would it be acceptable to use them instead of the Apostle's Creed in a Lutheran church service in Germany?

The reason I ask is because we have already conceived. So at that point does it matter that it is not vaginal?

The Catholic Church has four Marian Dogmas and claims that the Church was guided and its teaching was inspired by the Holy Spirit. CCC95 says, > It is clear therefore that, in the supremely wise arrangement of God, sacred Tradition, Sacred Scripture and the Magisterium of the Church are so connected and associated that one of them cannot stand without the others. Working together, each in its own way, under the action of the one Holy Spirit, they all contribute effectively to the salvation of souls. *Pastor aeternus* teaches that the Pope is guided by the charism of the Holy Spirit and upheld infallibility in proclaiming Church Dogma. > We teach and define that it is a dogma Divinely revealed that the Roman pontiff when he speaks ex cathedra, that is when in discharge of the office of pastor and doctor of all Christians, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine regarding faith or morals to be held by the universal Church, by the Divine assistance promised to him in Blessed Peter, is possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer willed that his Church should be endowed in defining doctrine regarding faith or morals, and that therefore such definitions of the Roman pontiff are of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, irreformable. — [Pastor aeternus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pastor_aeternus) How come the Protestant and Christian denominations or Bible alone believers who oppose these Dogmas claim that they are also guided by the same Holy Spirit? Is the Holy Spirit that guided the Catholic Church in proclaiming the Marian Dogmass the same Holy Spirit that were inspiring Protestant and Christian denominations to oppose it? How can the Protestant defend themselves on this obvious contradiction, knowing fully that there are no Protestant pastors and believers who can claim infallibility in their scripture interpretations?