In Genesis 5:24, it states that Enoch “was no more, because God took him,” and notably, the passage does not explicitly say that he died, unlike the repeated pattern “and he died” for others in the genealogy. Some Christian traditions hold that no human beings are in heaven prior to the resurrection, except for Jesus Christ. Given this, how do such Christians interpret the case of Enoch? - Do they understand “God took him” as implying a form of death that is simply not described in the usual terms? - Or do they interpret it as a unique exception that does not contradict their broader theological view? - Are there denominational differences in how this passage is understood? I am particularly interested in interpretations that remain consistent with the view that humans do not enter heaven before the final resurrection.

I personally have no children and would feel better to know if any of Jesus original disciples had children?

It is my impression that across denominations that [compatibilism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Compatibilism) is the dominant position and answer to the question of divine sovereignty and human free will. The main alternative is [libertarian free will](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Libertarianism_(metaphysics)) , which states that humans have totally free wills with no control (or maybe even no influence) by God. (The other alternative to compatibilism is total determinism, but that is not generally considered compatible with Christianity.) When it comes to the Bible, Christians have historically believed that God [inspired the writing of the scriptures](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_inspiration) , but in a way that left the human author utilising their full creative capabilities. This has been called the "dual authorship" of the scriptures: when we ask who wrote the Bible, we can truly say both its human authors and God. This doctrine fits perfectly with compatibilism; it can be seen as just one particular application of how divine and human wills coexist. So how do those who reject compatibilism explain the inspiration of scripture? Can they also uphold the dual authorship of scripture? Can they uphold the doctrine of Biblical inerrancy/infallibility, or do they say that only when the Biblical authors wrote down a direct divine revelation (such as Habakkuk 2) is the text without flaw?

The International Committee on Biblical Inerrancy has set out two magisterial documents related to an understanding of inerrancy: the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy (1978) and the Chicago Statement on Biblical Hermeneutics (1981). Earlier (1959), the Christian Reformed Church of North America settled on a definition and understanding of Biblical infallibility . According to one member of the Council on Infallibility: > The committee discussed at some length the usefulness of the word *inerrant* to describe the Bible. We concluded that it is not the most felicitous term to express the unique character of the Scriptures. We agreed that *infallible* and *trustworthy* fit the nature of the Bible more appropriately. The rest of his article speaks in general terms on why they rejected the term, but I'm looking for more than that. I'd like to understand specifically what about the reliability and authority of the Bible the ICBI affirms and denies that the CRCNA would not affirm and deny, and vice-versa.

**Incorporating *"biblical foods"* into our christian culture, either at home or in our Christian communities?** For this question **biblical foods** should mean foods that come straight from the Scriptures. I realize that various Christian Churches and communities are more or less tradtion minded and some are more liturgically established. With this in mind I will like to know how various Christian Churches and communities could be more biblical food based according to their perspective traditions. For example on the Fouth Sunday of Lent in the Roman Catholic Church they have the readings of which includes the Woman at the Well. Wikipedia explains a local tradition that takes place in Mexico on this date > In Oaxaca, Mexico, a celebration of the Samaritan woman takes place on the fourth Friday of Lent. The custom of the day involves churches, schools, and businesses giving away fruit drinks to passers-by. - [Samaritan woman at the well](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samaritan_woman_at_the_well) What other possibilities is there that churches could incorporate into Christian culture that are associated with particular biblical readings of the readings of the day on Sunday services (mass) or major feast days (Solemnities)? For the sake of defining what biblical foods is for this question. Biblical foods are any food or drink mentioned in Scriptures, whether a real biblical food or ordinary food mentioned in a specific scriptural narrative. I would like to hear responses of various Christian denominations on this subject matter if possible on how they might incorporate foods to commemorate biblical events?

I always hear people use the Ethiopian Bible as evidence that our modern more common Bibles, such as the King James Bible, have been corrupted over the years. The apocryphal books in the dead sea scrolls were compared to the books in the Ethiopian Bible and they matched up almost word for word. So its difficult to defend the accuracy of my King James Bible. With this being the case, should all Bibles include every book just like the Ethiopian Bible? In the case of "The book of Enoch" I heard that it was removed from our Bible due to it not being written by Enoch (please correct me if thats wrong). Isnt it possible that it was passed on by word of mouth, which was common due to literacy rates back then, and then written much later? How can we be certain that we didnt corrupt Gods word?

I’ve been trying to understand what the Bible really says about modesty, especially for women, and I’m a bit confused by different opinions. Some people say modesty is mainly about clothing (like dressing covered and not attracting attention), while others say it’s more about the heart, intentions, and behavior rather than specific outfits. I’ve seen verses like 1 Timothy 2:9 and 1 Peter 3:3-4, but I’m not sure how to apply them in today’s context. So I wanted to ask: Is modesty mainly about how someone dresses, or more about their attitude and character or both?cause I have heard people saying a women can wear anything if ther heart is clean. Are there clear guidelines in the Bible about what is considered “immodest”? How should a young Christian woman apply modesty in modern society without feeling restricted or judged? I’d really appreciate answers that are based on scripture rather than just personal opinions. Thank you!

Many Christians believe that the writing of the Bible was inspired by God, and that its content is (essentially) correct. I would like to understand on what this belief is based. Obviously it cannot be based on the Bible itself, this would be circular reasoning. What I could imagine: - through prayer or your personal connection with God you came to this conclusion. - there is someone (living, or from the past) that told you this and fully trust that person. - Maybe something else?

A comment to another question that I had asked said that the LDS does not accept the NIV as a correct translation. Based on that comment it seems that they only accept King James Version (KJV) which, according to the Wikipedia article , is also known as King James Bible or Authorized Version. **The questions I would like ask are:** 1. Is the KJV from 1611 the only translation accepted by Mormons, or are there other translations they accept, such as perhaps NKJV? 2. What Bible translations do Mormons use in countries where KJV does not exist in local language, such as Sweden?

Psalm 2:7 says: “I will declare the decree:The Lord has said to Me,‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You"... See also Hebrews 1:5; 5:5 (and compare with Mark 1:9-11). Psalms 2:7 (ignoring those that say it talks about David); and Hebrews 5:5 - clearly speak in terms of "TODAY" I have begotten thee". (emphasis on "today"). What was the relationship of Jesus to God "the father" before the day Jesus became a begotten son of God? NOTE: I have taken care to read the posts that speak about Jesus as a son of God. They don't ask the same question as to what he was before. Edit: Question is addressed to those who believe that Jesus is "the word" spoken of in John 1:1; those who accept him to be the "only begotten son" or the second person in the Trinity. I am not sure whether only Trinitarians subscribe to these ideas. My understanding of "mainstream" Trinitarian Christianity is that God has always been "the father", "the son ("word")", and "the Holy spirit". When one reads Hebrews 5:5: "Today I have begotten you", it signifies a change in relationship. Does it mean that before "THAT day", divine Jesus or "the Word" was something else to God but not a son? That is the relationship I am inquiring about.

From the [Cannons of Dort](https://www.crcna.org/welcome/beliefs/confessions/canons-dort) 2nd Point of Doctrine, Article III > This death of God’s Son is the only and entirely complete sacrifice and satisfaction for sins; it is of infinite value and worth, more than sufficient to atone for the sins of the whole world. This is from a Calvinist perspective, but I assume that most Christians hold that Christ's atonement for man is infinite and unlimited in time and in power. My question is about where this belief was sourced from. Is it somewhere I don't know about in the Bible or from early Christian creeds/councils? So what do Calvinists point to as the origin of the belief of an infinite atonement?

Rather than busting out a KJV and a JST and comparing them verse by verse I am lazily hoping that there is, somewhere, a list which has already been generated providing all of the verses from the Bible which the JST has modified or allegedly 'restored'?

THE CLOSET VERSE REGARDING TRINITY IN THE BIBLE HAS BEEN THROWN OUT . The Verse in the Bible which is closest to Trinity and is often quoted by Christian missionaries is first Epistle of John Chapter 5 Verse 7 ... "**For there are three that bear record in heaven, the father, the word and holy ghost; and these three are one**" In the Revised Standard Version of the Bible, revised by 32 Christian Scholars of the highest eminence backed by 50 different cooperating denominations, this verse which is the keystone of the Christian faith has been removed as an interpolation, as a fabrication, as a concoction. According to them this verse does not exist in the original manuscripts, therby eliminating another lie from the English R.S.V... P. S : You can't have a word of God being corrupted like that?? Do you?

In passages describing the resurrection and the return of Christ, angels are sometimes described as gathering people. For example, Gospel of Matthew 24:31 says that the Son of Man will send His angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather His elect from the four winds. Meanwhile, First Epistle to the Thessalonians 4:16–17 describes the dead in Christ rising first, followed by the living believers being caught up. My question is: **Are angels described in scripture as gathering the dead in Christ from their graves, the living believers from the earth, or both?**

In passages such as First Epistle to the Corinthians 15:45–49, Paul the Apostle contrasts the first man, Adam, with the second man, Christ: >“The first man Adam became a living being; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit… Just as we have borne the image of the man of dust, we shall also bear the image of the man of heaven.”
(1 Cor 15:45–49) This seems to suggest that humanity bears the image of Adam in a physical or natural sense (“man of dust”). My question is: In what sense do Christians bear the image of the second man, Christ? - Is this image spiritual (e.g., regeneration, righteousness, new nature)? - Is it future, referring primarily to the resurrection body?

*Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy* (IEP) article on Philo claims that Philo > “laid the foundations for the development of Christianity … as we know it today.” It says > “Philo’s primary importance is in the development of the … foundations of Christianity.” More specifically, it claims that the Logos theology , that became the standard explanation of Jesus after the church became Gentile dominated in the second century, was inspired by Philo, namely, that Philo, by synthesizing Judaism and Greek philosophy, developed concepts which formed the basis for the Christian interpretation of Jesus Christ. The IEP article mentions > “Clement of Alexandria, Christian Apologists like Athenagoras, Theophilus, Justin Martyr, Tertullian, and by Origen” as Christian theologists who used Philo’s concepts to explain the Biblical Son of God. Furthermore, and much more important, the IEP article claims that Philo influenced the Bible itself. (Philo lived and wrote a few decades before the writers of the New Testament.) The article says Philo > “may have influenced Paul, his contemporary, and perhaps the authors of the Gospel of John … and the Epistle to the Hebrews.” To justify these statements, the IEP article points to the following similarities between Philo and the New Testament: Same Titles ----------- In Philo, the Logos exists before everything else and, therefore, is called the “first-born” (IEP), “the ‘first-born’ of God” (Blogos ), and the first-begotten Son of the Uncreated Father (IEP). Consequently, both Philo's Logos and Jesus Christ are called: - Logos (the Word - John 1:1), - The first-born (Col 1:15; Heb 1:6), and - Son of God. Eternal ------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos is eternal: - In the NT, the Son "was" in “the beginning” (John 1:1-2) and is “the First and the Last” (Rev 1:17). “His goings forth are from long ago, From the days of eternity” (Micah 5:2). The Arians liked to add, “From everlasting I was established” (Prov 8:23). - Similarly, in Philo, the Logos was begotten from eternity (IEP). The Logos has an origin, but as God’s thought, it also has eternal generation (IEP). God begat the Logos eternally because it is a manifestation of God’s thinking-acting (IEP). Created and Maintains All Things -------------------------------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos created and still maintains all things: - In Philo, the Logos is “the organizing principle of matter” (Blogos), the power by which God made and ordered all things (IEP), and the bond holding together all the parts of the world (IEP). - In John, God created all things through the Logos (John 1:1-3; cf. Col 1:16; Heb 1:2; 1 Cor 8:6) and also maintains all things through His Son (Heb 1:3; Col 1:17). Entrusted Power --------------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos receives His power from God: - In Philo, the Logos has no autonomous power, only an entrusted one (Wikipedia ). - Similarly, in the New Testament, the miracles which Jesus performed were performed by God “through Him” (Acts 2:22). God “seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places, far above all rule and authority and power and dominion” (Eph 1:17-21). The Angel of the Lord --------------------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos is the Old Testament Angel of the Lord: - Many Christians identify the Old Testament Angel of the LORD as the pre-existent Christ. - Similarly, Philo describes the Logos as the revealer of God symbolized in the Scripture by an angel of the Lord (IEP). Reveals God ----------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos reveals the invisible and incomprehensible God to the created things: - In Philo, “God is revealed to His creation through the Logos” (Blogos). - Similarly, in the New Testament, God “alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see” but the Son is “the exact representation” of God’s nature (Heb 1:3); “the (visible) image of the invisible God” (Col 1:15). Therefore, Jesus said, “He who has seen Me has seen the Father” (John 14:9). Light ----- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos illuminates the soul: - In Philo, the Logos illuminates the human soul and nourishes it with a higher spiritual food (Wikipedia ). In the mind of a wise man thoroughly purified, it allows preservation of virtues in an unimpaired condition. (IEP) - Similarly, Jesus said, “I am the Light of the world; he who follows Me will not walk in the darkness” (John 8:12). And John wrote: “In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men.” “There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man” (John 1:4, 9). Begotten -------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos is neither uncreated as God nor created as men: - In Philo, "the ontology of the Logos would most closely resemble an emanation from the divine essence” (Blogos), and “an extension of a divine being” (IEP). The Logos is more than a quality, power, or characteristic of God; it is an entity eternally generated as an extension (IEP). Therefore, the Logos … is neither uncreated as God nor created as men (IEP). - Similarly, in the NT, the Son is the only being ever “begotten” by the Father. If we interpret this fairly literally, it seems to indicate that He came out of the being of God. The Nicene Creed interprets “begotten” as that He was not created but came from the substance of the Father. The anti-Nicenes warn that humans do not understand what “begotten” of God means and that we should not introduce non-Biblical words or thoughts. Mediator between God and man ---------------------------- In both Philo and the NT, the Logos is the mediator between God and man: - In Philo, the Father is the Supreme Being and the Logos, as his chief messenger, stands between Creator and creature (IEP). The Logos is a perfect being, procuring forgiveness of sins and blessings (IEP); the mediator between God and men (IEP). “The Philonic Logos is the bridge between the infinite God and finite creation” (Blogos). - Similarly, in the New Testament, “there is one God, and ***one mediator*** also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus” (1 Tim 2:5; cf. Heb 8:6; 9:15). Everything that the creation receives from God, including existence, sustenance, knowledge, and salvation, flows through His Son. Also, through Christ, we draw near to God and worship Him. Question -------- It is fairly common knowledge that the pre-Nicene Fathers (the Apologists ) explained the Son of God in terms of Greek philosophy. My main question is whether Philo influenced the formulation and contents of the New Testament. Perhaps I can frame the question like this: Jesus and Philo lived at the same time. Jesus said that all power and all judgment have been given Him but He never said that He is the Logos or that God created all things through Him. However, Philo, at that same time, taught that the High God created all things through His Logos. So, did John, Paul, and Hebrews get the idea that Jesus is the Logos and that God created all things through Him from Philo?

What does Isaiah 43:26 really means. Some persons say God said we should remind him of his word but I dont get that meaning although I reviewed several versions of the Bible. >Put me in remembrance: let us plead together: declare thou, that thou mayest be justified. [Isaiah 43:26 KJV] >Cause me to remember -- we are judged together, Declare thou that thou mayest be justified. [Isaiah 43:26 Young's Literal]

The Book of Enoch mentions Gadreel as one of the Watchers, but the specific claim that Gadreel led Eve astray appears in 1 Enoch 69:6. Here's the passage from the Book of Enoch that mentions Gadreel: #### 1 Enoch 69:6 (from the Ethiopic text): >"And the third was named Gadreel: he it is who showed the children of men all the blows of death, and he led astray Eve, and showed the weapons of death to the sons of men." This passage suggests that Gadreel was responsible for leading Eve astray, which contrasts with the Genesis account where the serpent is the one who tempts Eve. #### Context of the Passage - In 1 Enoch, the Watchers are fallen angels who descended to Earth and corrupted humanity. They taught forbidden knowledge to humans, including how to make weapons of war, astrology, and the "secrets" of the heavens. - The reference to Gadreel is part of a broader narrative that associates the Watchers with the downfall of humankind, which includes the temptation of Eve. This is a key divergence from the canonical Genesis story where it is explicitly the serpent (often identified with Satan) who deceives Eve. The role of Gadreel in this context highlights the Book of Enoch's unique interpretation of the fall, is this the reason why it was excluded from the Bible, as it conflicts with the established narrative in canonical texts.

I live in a country where the dominant religion is not Christianity and where adherents of all other religions are brutally persecuted. No one in real life knows that I believe in the Lord because I cannot tell anyone due to risk to my safety. The Bible is a dense book with a lot of chapters so even though I am an adult, the first book I read was 365 tales from the Bible written for children. It contained stories in Biblical order from both the Old and New Testaments [possibly [this one](https://archive.org/details/childrensbiblein00batc/page/4/mode/2up) , ed.]. I really liked those stories. But here I can't discuss my faith with anyone and my ethnic group is already persecuted. I have already lost many educational and employment opportunities because of it. **Can you please suggest several non-fiction books written in English / French or several authors writing about the Bible, Christianity, history of Christianity, and Testimonies by believers?** I shall be grateful.

If someone quotes e.g. Leviticus 6:7, will this be the correct position no matter the language or translation?