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Christianity

Q&A for committed Christians, experts in Christianity and those interested in learning more

Latest Questions

3 votes
1 answers
38 views
How do proponents of “once saved, always saved” interpret passages that condition salvation on perseverance?
In Matthew 24:13, Jesus says: >“But the one who endures to the end will be saved.” This appears to place a condition on salvation—namely, perseverance. It seems to imply that failing to endure could result in not being saved. Additionally, in Galatians 3:3, Paul rebukes believers: >“Are you so fooli...
In Matthew 24:13, Jesus says: >“But the one who endures to the end will be saved.” This appears to place a condition on salvation—namely, perseverance. It seems to imply that failing to endure could result in not being saved. Additionally, in Galatians 3:3, Paul rebukes believers: >“Are you so foolish? Having begun by the Spirit, are you now being perfected by the flesh?” This raises concerns about those who begin in faith but do not continue rightly. Other passages such as Hebrews 3:14 (“we have come to share in Christ, if indeed we hold our original confidence firm to the end”) also seem to connect salvation with continued faithfulness. **Question:** How do proponents of the doctrine that salvation cannot be lost (e.g., “once saved, always saved”) reconcile these passages with their view? Specifically, how are conditional statements about enduring to the end understood within that framework?
So Few Against So Many (5886 rep)
Mar 21, 2026, 09:22 AM • Last activity: Mar 21, 2026, 02:04 PM
4 votes
4 answers
522 views
How do proponents of annihilationism interpret “weeping and gnashing of teeth”?
In several passages, Jesus describes judgment using the phrase “weeping and gnashing of teeth” (e.g., Matthew 13:42, Matthew 25:30). At the same time, some Christian traditions—particularly those that hold to annihilationism or conditional immortality—understand the “lake of fire” as resulting in th...
In several passages, Jesus describes judgment using the phrase “weeping and gnashing of teeth” (e.g., Matthew 13:42, Matthew 25:30). At the same time, some Christian traditions—particularly those that hold to annihilationism or conditional immortality—understand the “lake of fire” as resulting in the eventual destruction of the wicked rather than ongoing conscious torment. My question is: How do proponents of annihilationism reconcile their view with Jesus’ description of “weeping and gnashing of teeth”? Specifically: - Do they interpret this phrase as referring to a temporary conscious experience before destruction? - Or is it understood metaphorically (e.g., representing regret, judgment, or exclusion rather than ongoing conscious suffering)? I am looking for answers that explain how this phrase is interpreted within annihilationist theology, ideally with references to biblical or theological sources.
So Few Against So Many (5886 rep)
Mar 19, 2026, 08:43 AM • Last activity: Mar 21, 2026, 12:32 AM
4 votes
1 answers
139 views
Who was the first person to relate "left behind" (Mat 24:40-41) with the rapture?
Millions of dollars have been made off the **Left Behind** books and movies. I would like to ask who was the first person to associate Matthew 24:40-41 with the rapture?
Millions of dollars have been made off the **Left Behind** books and movies. I would like to ask who was the first person to associate Matthew 24:40-41 with the rapture?
Alan Fuller (1071 rep)
Feb 22, 2026, 03:34 PM • Last activity: Mar 20, 2026, 10:56 PM
0 votes
2 answers
81 views
Which denomination or Church interprets Wisdom in Proverbs 8:22 as a "created Spirit"?
Looking at the different translations of Proverbs 8:22, it describes the "Artisan or Wisdom" as separate from God in Proverbs 8:30: >**Douay-Rheims Bible** I was with him forming all things: and was delighted every day, playing before him at all times; >**New American Standard Bible** Then I was bes...
Looking at the different translations of Proverbs 8:22, it describes the "Artisan or Wisdom" as separate from God in Proverbs 8:30: >**Douay-Rheims Bible** I was with him forming all things: and was delighted every day, playing before him at all times; >**New American Standard Bible** Then I was beside Him, as a master workman; And I was His delight daily, Rejoicing always before Him, >**Catholic Public Domain Version** I was with him in composing all things. And I was delighted, throughout every day, by playing in his sight at all times, >**New American Bible** then was I beside him as artisan; I was his delight day by day, playing before him all the while, From the different Bible translations, it clearly describes the "artisan or Wisdom" is a separate spirit being, beside God. **Which denomination or Church interprets Wisdom in Proverbs 8:22 as a "created Spirit"?**
jong ricafort (1018 rep)
Feb 16, 2026, 09:55 AM • Last activity: Mar 18, 2026, 08:08 PM
10 votes
2 answers
6091 views
How do Calvinists interpret 1 John 2:2 in light of Limited Atonement?
1 John 2:2 (ESV) > He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. Understanding the "ours" as referring to the universal church of believers, it would seem that John is saying that Christ "propitiated" for everyone's sins. Calvinism, through the...
1 John 2:2 (ESV) > He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. Understanding the "ours" as referring to the universal church of believers, it would seem that John is saying that Christ "propitiated" for everyone's sins. Calvinism, through the doctrine of limited, or definite, or particular, atonement, says that Christ died only for the elect. How would a five-point Calvinist understand this passage?
Joshua (2154 rep)
Mar 13, 2016, 02:39 PM • Last activity: Mar 18, 2026, 12:52 AM
4 votes
2 answers
1168 views
According to soul sleep adherents, what's wrong with an "Occam's razor" interpretation of 1 Samuel 28 (Saul and the Medium of En-dor)?
By an [Occam's razor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occam%27s_razor) interpretation of 1 Samuel 28, I mean an interpretation that is as straightforward as possible, which doesn't require making unnecessary assumptions or special pleadings in the way the passage is interpreted. For example, if the au...
By an [Occam's razor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Occam%27s_razor) interpretation of 1 Samuel 28, I mean an interpretation that is as straightforward as possible, which doesn't require making unnecessary assumptions or special pleadings in the way the passage is interpreted. For example, if the author says literally and plainly that "X happened", well, the straightforward interpretation is that X happened and that's it. Applying this to 1 Samuel 28 ESV (pay attention to the bold text): > In those days the Philistines gathered their forces for war, to fight against Israel. And Achish said to David, “Understand that you and your men are to go out with me in the army.” 2 David said to Achish, “Very well, you shall know what your servant can do.” And Achish said to David, “Very well, I will make you my bodyguard for life.” > > 3 **Now Samuel had died**, and all Israel had mourned for him and buried him in Ramah, his own city. And Saul had put the mediums and the necromancers out of the land. 4 The Philistines assembled and came and encamped at Shunem. And Saul gathered all Israel, and they encamped at Gilboa. 5 When Saul saw the army of the Philistines, he was afraid, and his heart trembled greatly. 6 And when Saul inquired of the Lord, the Lord did not answer him, either by dreams, or by Urim, or by prophets. 7 Then Saul said to his servants, “Seek out for me a woman who is a medium, that I may go to her and inquire of her.” And his servants said to him, “Behold, there is a medium at En-dor.” > > 8 So Saul disguised himself and put on other garments and went, he and two men with him. And they came to the woman by night. And he said, “Divine for me by a spirit and bring up for me whomever I shall name to you.” 9 The woman said to him, “Surely you know what Saul has done, how he has cut off the mediums and the necromancers from the land. Why then are you laying a trap for my life to bring about my death?” 10 But Saul swore to her by the Lord, “As the Lord lives, no punishment shall come upon you for this thing.” 11 Then the woman said, “Whom shall I bring up for you?” **He said, “Bring up Samuel for me.”** 12 **When the woman saw Samuel**, she cried out with a loud voice. And the woman said to Saul, “Why have you deceived me? You are Saul.” 13 The king said to her, “Do not be afraid. What do you see?” And the woman said to Saul, “I see a god coming up out of the earth.” 14 He said to her, “What is his appearance?” And she said, “An old man is coming up, and he is wrapped in a robe.” **And Saul knew that it was Samuel, and he bowed with his face to the ground and paid homage**. > > 15 **Then Samuel said to Saul**, “Why have you disturbed me by bringing me up?” Saul answered, “I am in great distress, for the Philistines are warring against me, and God has turned away from me and answers me no more, either by prophets or by dreams. Therefore I have summoned you to tell me what I shall do.” 16 **And Samuel said**, “Why then do you ask me, since the Lord has turned from you and become your enemy? 17 The Lord has done to you as he spoke by me, for the Lord has torn the kingdom out of your hand and given it to your neighbor, David. 18 Because you did not obey the voice of the Lord and did not carry out his fierce wrath against Amalek, therefore the Lord has done this thing to you this day. 19 Moreover, the Lord will give Israel also with you into the hand of the Philistines, and tomorrow you and your sons shall be with me. The Lord will give the army of Israel also into the hand of the Philistines.” > > 20 Then Saul fell at once full length on the ground, filled with fear because of **the words of Samuel**. And there was no strength in him, for he had eaten nothing all day and all night. 21 And the woman came to Saul, and when she saw that he was terrified, she said to him, “Behold, your servant has obeyed you. I have taken my life in my hand and have listened to what you have said to me. 22 Now therefore, you also obey your servant. Let me set a morsel of bread before you; and eat, that you may have strength when you go on your way.” 23 He refused and said, “I will not eat.” But his servants, together with the woman, urged him, and he listened to their words. So he arose from the earth and sat on the bed. 24 Now the woman had a fattened calf in the house, and she quickly killed it, and she took flour and kneaded it and baked unleavened bread of it, 25 and she put it before Saul and his servants, and they ate. Then they rose and went away that night. Assuming that 1 Samuel 28 is inspired text and that the author is telling us about events as they actually happened, a straightforward interpretation of the passage reveals the following facts: - Samuel was already dead (v3) - Saul asked the medium to invoke Samuel (v11) - The medium saw Samuel (v12) - Saul was convinced that it was Samuel (v14) - Samuel spoke to Saul (v15, v16) - The words that were spoken were from Samuel (v20) As we can see, the author is telling us, literally and plainly, that Samuel spoke to Saul. An Occam's razor interpretation of this passage should therefore lead us to conclude that, if the author is telling us that Samuel spoke to Saul (even though he was already dead), then, well, Samuel spoke to Saul. As simple as that. That's literally, unambiguously stated in the text. And keep in mind that this is not a Parable or other kind of passage full of symbolic language that would warrant having second thoughts on the meaning of words. ### Question According to 'soul sleep' adherents, what's wrong with this straightforward approach to 1 Samuel chapter 28? If the author is telling us that "X happened", what's wrong with concluding that "X happened"? If this "Occam's razor" interpretation of 1 Samuel 28 is not justified, are there any other examples of non-parabolic, non-symbolic passages in which a similar straightforward interpretation is not justified? Is there a hermeneutical principle that justifies not always being straightforward in our interpretation of a non-symbolic, non-parabolic passage?
user50422
Jan 23, 2022, 06:07 PM • Last activity: Mar 16, 2026, 06:41 AM
0 votes
1 answers
53 views
4 Horses of Revelation
Were the 4 horses of revelation released upon the world in the past?
Were the 4 horses of revelation released upon the world in the past?
Shadow Shepherd (9 rep)
Mar 11, 2026, 01:20 PM • Last activity: Mar 13, 2026, 12:35 PM
6 votes
2 answers
121 views
How do committed SDA scholars respond to Paul's instruction to Timothy about not abstaining from certain Food?
Paul instructed a young minister, Timothy, in his first letter to that man: >The Spirit clearly says that in later times some will abandon the faith and follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons...They forbid people to marry and order them to abstain from certain foods, which God created...
Paul instructed a young minister, Timothy, in his first letter to that man: >The Spirit clearly says that in later times some will abandon the faith and follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons...They forbid people to marry and order them to abstain from certain foods, which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and who know the truth.
For everything God created is good, and nothing is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving because it is consecrated by the Word of God and prayer. (1 Timothy 4:1-5) It seems that--without allowing irresponsible eating, and without ignoring common sense dieting--that generally Paul taught that there is to be no restrictions on one's diet...especially in connection with religious institutions or required religious observances. And there are today several religions or even Christian denominations that forbid certain foods to be eaten. Seventh Day Adventism is one of those denominations. And no doubt they are familiar with this warning by Paul. So how do they respond to Paul?
ray grant (5560 rep)
Mar 6, 2026, 10:21 PM • Last activity: Mar 12, 2026, 08:04 AM
4 votes
1 answers
255 views
How do Biblical Unitarians interpret Malachi 3:1-5?
Malachi 3:1-5 (ESV): > “Behold, **I send** my messenger, and he will prepare the way **before me**. And **the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple**; and **the messenger of the covenant** in whom you delight, behold, he is coming, **says the LORD of hosts**. 2 But who can endure the d...
Malachi 3:1-5 (ESV): > “Behold, **I send** my messenger, and he will prepare the way **before me**. And **the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple**; and **the messenger of the covenant** in whom you delight, behold, he is coming, **says the LORD of hosts**. 2 But who can endure the day of his coming, and who can stand when he appears? For he is like a refiner's fire and like fullers' soap. 3 He will sit as a refiner and purifier of silver, and he will purify the sons of Levi and refine them like gold and silver, and they will bring offerings in righteousness to the LORD. 4 Then the offering of Judah and Jerusalem will be pleasing to the LORD as in the days of old and as in former years. > > 5 “Then I will draw near to you for judgment. I will be a swift witness against the sorcerers, against the adulterers, against those who swear falsely, against those who oppress the hired worker in his wages, the widow and the fatherless, against those who thrust aside the sojourner, and do not fear me, says the LORD of hosts. Trinitarians usually interpret Malachi 3:1-5 as evidence that Jesus is Jehovah, by picking up on the fact that Jehovah is speaking in the first person about himself, but then it turns out that the one who came was Jesus. For more details, here are [two](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/56076/38524) [examples](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/56079/38524) of this kind of exegesis on the passage, taken from the hermeneutics site. Of course, this way of exegeting Malachi 3:1-5 totally contradicts the Christological views of Biblical Unitarians. How do Biblical Unitarians exegete Malachi 3:1-5?
user50422
May 1, 2021, 01:24 AM • Last activity: Mar 11, 2026, 03:36 PM
4 votes
4 answers
217 views
On what exegetical grounds is 1 Corinthians 8:6 interpreted as an “expansion” of the Shema?
In a recent [debate between Dr. James White and Dr. Justin Smith][1], Dr. James White argues for a Trinitarian interpretation of 1 Corinthians 8:6, claiming that Paul deliberately echoes the Shema (“Hear, O Israel: YHWH our God, YHWH is one” – Deut 6:4) and “expands” it. According to this argument,...
In a recent debate between Dr. James White and Dr. Justin Smith , Dr. James White argues for a Trinitarian interpretation of 1 Corinthians 8:6, claiming that Paul deliberately echoes the Shema (“Hear, O Israel: YHWH our God, YHWH is one” – Deut 6:4) and “expands” it. According to this argument, Paul: - Retains the Shema’s monotheistic framework - Identifies “one God” with the Father - Identifies “one Lord (κύριος)” with Jesus Christ - Uses the same κύριος / θεός vocabulary found in the Septuagint rendering of Deut 6:4 This is taken to imply that Paul includes Jesus within the unique divine identity of YHWH, without abandoning Jewish monotheism. **My question is directed to Christians who affirm the doctrine of the Trinity:** **Apart from later creeds or patristic theology, what exegetical and hermeneutical arguments support reading 1 Corinthians 8:6 as a deliberate reworking or “expansion” of the Shema?** More specifically: - Does the immediate literary context of 1 Corinthians 8 support this reading? - What linguistic or intertextual indicators suggest Paul is intentionally alluding to Deuteronomy 6:4? - How should the distinction between “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ” be understood without collapsing them into modalism or separating them into two gods? Would you agree with Dr. White’s interpretation? If so, on what biblical and contextual grounds, rather than post‑biblical theological developments? If not, what other interpretations of 1 Corinthians 8:6 exist that are in support of the trinity doctrine, and on what biblical and contextual grounds, rather than post‑biblical theological developments?
Js Witness (2942 rep)
Feb 24, 2026, 11:47 AM • Last activity: Mar 9, 2026, 08:14 PM
6 votes
3 answers
863 views
Is there any biblical or theological basis for believing that Adam and Eve themselves observed a Sabbath prior to the Fall?
In Genesis 2:2–3, God rests on the seventh day and blesses and sanctifies it. However, the explicit command to observe the Sabbath does not appear until Exodus 16 and is formally given in the Decalogue in Exodus 20:8–11. Does Genesis imply that the sanctification of the seventh day functioned as an...
In Genesis 2:2–3, God rests on the seventh day and blesses and sanctifies it. However, the explicit command to observe the Sabbath does not appear until Exodus 16 and is formally given in the Decalogue in Exodus 20:8–11. Does Genesis imply that the sanctification of the seventh day functioned as an ordinance for humanity from creation? Or is the Sabbath understood in Christian theology to have been instituted later, particularly within the Mosaic covenant?
So Few Against So Many (5886 rep)
Mar 3, 2026, 01:33 PM • Last activity: Mar 3, 2026, 08:24 PM
2 votes
1 answers
94 views
How do protestants interpret the meaning of Isaiah 43:26 to mean remind the Lord of his word. I did not get this meaning
What does Isaiah 43:26 really means. Some persons say God said we should remind him of his word but I dont get that meaning although I reviewed several versions of the Bible. >Put me in remembrance: let us plead together: declare thou, that thou mayest be justified. [Isaiah 43:26 KJV] >Cause me to r...
What does Isaiah 43:26 really means. Some persons say God said we should remind him of his word but I dont get that meaning although I reviewed several versions of the Bible. >Put me in remembrance: let us plead together: declare thou, that thou mayest be justified. [Isaiah 43:26 KJV] >Cause me to remember -- we are judged together, Declare thou that thou mayest be justified. [Isaiah 43:26 Young's Literal]
Geehanna M (21 rep)
Feb 23, 2026, 02:56 PM • Last activity: Mar 3, 2026, 08:21 PM
1 votes
1 answers
38 views
Regarding the 24 elders, what is the exegetical significance of preferring the reading τω θεω ημας over the reading τω θεω in Rev 5:9?
Most English translations in Rev 5:9 read something like "You purchased people for God by your blood from every tribe and language and people and nation." However, the Revelation ECM/CBGM data prefers the reading τῷ θεῷ ἡμᾶς over the reading of τῷ θεῷ (supported by only one Greek manuscript, 02). If...
Most English translations in Rev 5:9 read something like "You purchased people for God by your blood from every tribe and language and people and nation." However, the Revelation ECM/CBGM data prefers the reading τῷ θεῷ ἡμᾶς over the reading of τῷ θεῷ (supported by only one Greek manuscript, 02). If I am not mistaken, this would read something like "you purchased ***us*** for God by your blood...". My question(s) pertain to the significance of this change in reading. Who are the 24 elders? How does this reading change our understanding of their identity and function? Are they a part of the redeemed?
Elias Stanley (11 rep)
Jan 23, 2026, 06:28 PM • Last activity: Mar 1, 2026, 01:04 PM
1 votes
1 answers
26 views
How do Syriac/Eastern Christians view the Seven Sleepers legend?
I’m researching the story of the Seven Sleepers of Ephesus. I understand that it is not part of the canonical Bible, but that it appears in early Syriac Christian writings, such as the homilies of Jacob of Serugh (5th–6th century CE). I’m curious about how this story is viewed within Christian tradi...
I’m researching the story of the Seven Sleepers of Ephesus. I understand that it is not part of the canonical Bible, but that it appears in early Syriac Christian writings, such as the homilies of Jacob of Serugh (5th–6th century CE). I’m curious about how this story is viewed within Christian traditions today, particularly Eastern/Syriac Christianity: Is it considered purely devotional or moral literature, or is it treated as a historical event? How do clergy or believers engage with it—do they tell it as a story for inspiration, include it in liturgy, or otherwise reference it? Are there any standard interpretations or lessons emphasized by these communities? I’m interested in both historical and contemporary perspectives on the story in Syriac/Eastern Christian traditions.
Seslm (21 rep)
Feb 27, 2026, 11:02 PM • Last activity: Feb 28, 2026, 01:56 AM
3 votes
2 answers
266 views
What exegetical objections are raised against reading 1 Corinthians 8:6 as an "expansion" of the Shema?
In Trinitarian readings of 1 Corinthians 8:6, it is often argued (e.g., by [Dr. James White][1]) that Paul intentionally echoes the Shema of Deuteronomy 6:4 and “expands” it by identifying: - “one God” with the Father - “one Lord (κύριος)” with Jesus Christ On this view, Paul is said to include Jesu...
In Trinitarian readings of 1 Corinthians 8:6, it is often argued (e.g., by Dr. James White ) that Paul intentionally echoes the Shema of Deuteronomy 6:4 and “expands” it by identifying: - “one God” with the Father - “one Lord (κύριος)” with Jesus Christ On this view, Paul is said to include Jesus within the unique divine identity of YHWH while maintaining Jewish monotheism. **My question is directed to Christians who hold a non‑Trinitarian or Unitarian view:** **What are the primary exegetical and hermeneutical objections to interpreting 1 Corinthians 8:6 as a deliberate expansion or reformulation of the Shema?** In particular: - What reasons are there for denying that Paul is intentionally alluding to Deuteronomy 6:4? - How should the distinction between “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ” be understood within first‑century Jewish monotheism? - Does Paul’s use of κύριος necessarily imply identification with YHWH, or can it be explained in functional or representative terms? Answers should focus on biblical, linguistic, and contextual considerations, rather than appeals to later creeds or post‑biblical theology.
Js Witness (2942 rep)
Feb 24, 2026, 11:52 AM • Last activity: Feb 25, 2026, 03:39 PM
4 votes
4 answers
23011 views
Was the Tabernacle and its furnishings a copy of things in Heaven?
Revelation tells us that there is a Temple of God in Heaven, and that in that Temple is the Ark of his testament. Revelation 11:19 KJV > And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and...
Revelation tells us that there is a Temple of God in Heaven, and that in that Temple is the Ark of his testament. Revelation 11:19 KJV > And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail. God directed Moses twice to make sure that he built the Tabernacle after the pattern God had shown him on the Mountain. Exodus 25:9 KJV > According to all that I shew thee, after the pattern of the tabernacle, and the pattern of all the instruments thereof, even so shall ye make it. Exodus 25:40 KJV > And look that thou make them after their pattern, which was shewed thee in the Mount. The word translated here as *pattern* could have just as easily been translated *model*. >H8403 תַּבנִיתּ tabniyth (tab-neeth') n-f. >1. structure >2. (by implication) a model, resemblance >KJV: figure, form, likeness, pattern, similitude. Are there any theological suppositions about this?
BYE (13379 rep)
Oct 27, 2013, 07:31 PM • Last activity: Feb 24, 2026, 02:18 PM
1 votes
4 answers
1813 views
Context for Paul and Solomon's usage of "heap burning coals on his head."
> Romans 12:20 - "On the contrary: "If your enemy is hungry, feed him; if he is thirsty, give him something to drink. In doing this, you will heap burning coals on his head." > > Proverbs 25:22 - "In doing this, you will heap burning coals on his head, and the LORD will reward you." Do these two ver...
> Romans 12:20 - "On the contrary: "If your enemy is hungry, feed him; if he is thirsty, give him something to drink. In doing this, you will heap burning coals on his head." > > Proverbs 25:22 - "In doing this, you will heap burning coals on his head, and the LORD will reward you." Do these two verses have the same contextual meaning or are Paul and the author of Proverbs saying different things? And what might the meaning be given their context?
Sisyphus (544 rep)
Aug 8, 2014, 01:50 AM • Last activity: Feb 14, 2026, 08:56 PM
9 votes
4 answers
453 views
Which denominations follow "queer theology"?
According to [this page][1], it briefly describes this: > Queer theology begins with an assumption that gender non-conformity and homosexual desire have always been present in human history, and are present in the Bible. It is a way of unraveling structures and stories that have been oppressive. It...
According to this page , it briefly describes this: > Queer theology begins with an assumption that gender non-conformity and homosexual desire have always been present in human history, and are present in the Bible. It is a way of unraveling structures and stories that have been oppressive. It is also a way of understanding the Bible as a source of stories about radical love. It seems to me that this type of theology is strictly limited to academia; however, I may be wrong. Are there any denominations that follow "queer theology", and who are they? I know denominations that are open to LGBT Christians, but they do not seem to be focused on this style of interpretation of the Bible.
Double U (6923 rep)
Jul 3, 2013, 04:07 PM • Last activity: Feb 12, 2026, 12:24 PM
-1 votes
3 answers
157 views
Which denominations teach that Adam saw the face of God, before the fall?
Adam was created in the original state of justice and holiness, he have a pure heart originally, a sinless creature. >The concept that Adam was created in a state of original justice and holiness is a doctrine rooted in the biblical narrative of Genesis 1-3 and supported by New Testament reflections...
Adam was created in the original state of justice and holiness, he have a pure heart originally, a sinless creature. >The concept that Adam was created in a state of original justice and holiness is a doctrine rooted in the biblical narrative of Genesis 1-3 and supported by New Testament reflections on the image of God. >Key Bible verses and theological points supporting this doctrine include: Ecclesiastes 7:29: "Lo, this only have I found, that God hath made man upright; but they have sought out many inventions" (KJV). This verse is widely cited as direct scriptural evidence that humanity’s original condition was one of moral integrity, righteousness, and innocence. Genesis 1:26-27, 31: God creates man in His own image and likeness and declares all of creation, including humanity, "very good." This state is interpreted as original justice—a harmonious relationship with God, oneself, and creation. >Ephesians 4:24: While referring to the "new self" in Christ, this verse highlights the original state intended for humanity: "...put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness" (NIV). This implies that the restoration of humanity brings them back to the original holiness Adam possessed. >Colossians 3:10: Speaks of being "renewed in knowledge in the image of its Creator," referencing a return to the original righteous state. >Genesis 2:25: "And the man and his wife were both naked, and were not ashamed." This describes a state of innocence, internal harmony, and lack of sin before the Fall. >**Key Aspects of Original Justice:** >Original Holiness: Friendship with God and sharing in God's own life (sanctifying grace). >Original Justice: Harmony between Adam and Eve, inner harmony of the human person (reason, will, and desires were aligned), and harmony with creation. >Preternatural Gifts: Freedom from sickness, suffering, and death. >The Council of Trent (Session V, 1511) formally affirmed that Adam lost this "holiness and justice" through disobedience. It would seems that Adam was created with a pure heart before the fall, and there's no obstacle for him to see the face of God. **Did Adam saw the face of God before the fall?** This question is open for Catholicism, Protestant and Christians who have a source or writings that stated, Adam had seen the face of God before the fall.
jong ricafort (1018 rep)
Feb 2, 2026, 05:50 AM • Last activity: Feb 10, 2026, 02:35 AM
3 votes
2 answers
1302 views
What gift of God did Timothy have?
Paul refers to the gift of spirit that Timothy had in both I and II Timothy. > KJV 2 Timothy 1:6 Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands. What gift did Timothy have? Was he afraid to use it? The verse that immediately foll...
Paul refers to the gift of spirit that Timothy had in both I and II Timothy. > KJV 2 Timothy 1:6 Wherefore I put thee in remembrance that thou stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands. What gift did Timothy have? Was he afraid to use it? The verse that immediately follows the verse above seems to suggest this. > KJV 2 Timothy 1:7 For God hath not given us the spirit of fear; but of power, and of love, and of a sound mind. From the following verse, I can gather: 1. The gift that would be received by Timothy was foretold (given by prophecy) 2. It was given by Laying on of Hands (Paul's hands by first verse quoted) > KJV 1 Timothy 4:14 Neglect not the gift that is in thee, which was given thee by prophecy, with the laying on of the hands of the presbytery.
One Face (1793 rep)
Jan 21, 2015, 05:05 AM • Last activity: Feb 7, 2026, 05:07 PM
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