Aoa, i do medical researches and get articles published in journal ,if i take money from my co authors(other people participating in writing) for publication purpose which actually is not costing me anything is it wrong ?

Asslam o alaikum to all of my brothers and sisters.. Well my question is that i have searched in google that when a person swallow his saliva while fasting is this breaks persons fast..? Everywhere it shows that swallowing saliva will not breaks persons fast but whenever i do sehri after sehri my mouth suddenly filled with water till iftari so is this ok to swallow that much saliva?.. Most people do not fell that much saliva in their mouth as i do..Mostly i spit out but after 2 or 3 mint again my mouth fill with water.. Iam not good in english but i hope you get whatever i said. My question is only that is this ok to swallow that much saliva? But it's very hard for me to not to swallow saliva while praying salah in the month of ramadan.. We don't use tissues while praying salah so i swallow my saliva because there is no any other way of spitting out while praying salah specially in the month of ramdhan

In islam it is said that the awrah of slave women is less than that of free woman. This is because it makes it easier to do chores as move about as explained by some. **However:** If ‘Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) saw a slave woman covering her head, he would hit her and say: Are you trying to imitate free women, O foolish one? So slave women would uncover their heads, hands and faces."(Majmu‘ al-Fatawa 15/372). This indicates that it was not only a way to make life easier for the slaves but there is another reasoning behind why slaves were forbidden to dress like free women with the full head covering. It seems that it was not an option but a rule. **Q:** What was that reason was behind forbidding the slaves from wearing a head covering and why not let everyone dress the same (with head covering)?

It says in Al Hidaya By Burhan ad Din al Farghani al Marghinani "Qisas (retaliation) is not called hadd as it is a right of the individual, nor is ta'zir called hadd as it is not predetermined. The primary purpose in promulgating it as law is deterrence from acts that are harmful for subjects"... "Purification (from sin) is not the primary purpose in hadd, on the evidence that it is ordained for the unbeliever as well" Source: book chapter 97, book 11 , page 207 https://archive.org/details/al-hidaya-in-english/page/n457/mode/2up From what I understand, Hadd punishments are very severe, and as it suggests, the purpose is deterrence rather than equaling the crime done. So, in islam Eternal Jahanam is very severe. Like Hadd, is that because the crime of disbelief is so severe or it is for the purpose deference? Please could you correct any misunderstanding Thanks

HHS.gov write about mental health: > Mental health includes our emotional, psychological, and social well-being. It affects how we think, feel, and act. It also helps determine how we handle stress, relate to others, and make choices. > > ... Many factors contribute to mental health problems, including: (a) Biological factors, such as genes or brain chemistry, (b) Life experiences, such as trauma or abuse, and (c) Family history of mental health problems. Poor mental health and mental illness can lead to negative consequences, such as suicide and self harm, along with other unsocial behaviors, e.g. drug use, excessive drinking, excessive dieting, gambling, and so on. Included in this list are behaviors strongly forbidden in Islam (i.e., they're major sins). **Question**: Is mental health treatment sufficient to make permissible otherwise haram acts? It's widely accepted in Islam that *necessity overrides prohibition* (الضـرورات تبیح المحظورات) provided there is no alternative, e.g.: > ...If a forbidden insulin is the only choice, a religious leader or doctor should be encouraged to mediate and reduce the patient's guilt feeling and spiritual pain. **These advisers would use the doctrine of ‘the sanctity of life’, permissible in Islam.** It means that life must be saved at all costs. -- Bashir Qureshi, Diabetes in Ramadan , J. R. Soc. Med. 2002. While mental health treatment can be life saving, it doesn't usually take the immediate form "undergo treatment X and you'll be cured". Personal friends who have taken antidepressants report a "trial and error" nature, i.e., we can't know in advance whether a treatment works for a particular patient (if it doesn't work, try another medication). So it's not obvious that "necessity overrides prohibition" applies to mental health treatment. Likewise, I'm uncertain whether mental health treatment falls under the umbrella of the hadith: > The Prophet said, "There is no disease that Allah has created, except that He also has created its treatment." -- Abu Huraira , [Sahih al-Bukhari 5678] (sunnah.com ) Two prominent examples of conflict I've found in the medical literature are: (a) Muslims not taking medication during Ramadan, and (b) Muslims refusing to take medicine involving pork products. For example: > As ingestion of pork or any of its products is totally forbidden in Islam and it may be considered as committing a sinful act. So if this issue is not identified and addressed, then patients may not only stop taking their medications, and hence leading to relapse of symptoms, increasing hospitalization rates, and increasing healthcare costs but also lead to a poor doctor-patient relationship. -- Sabry and Vohra, Role of Islam in the management of Psychiatric disorders , Indian J Psychiatry. 2013. Also, surveys report unwillingness of Muslims to acknowledge and seek treatement for mental health issues (interpreting them as e.g. tests from God, or possession by jinn): > Even when Muslims have positive attitudes toward mental healing, social stigma remains strong. -- Ciftci, Jones, and Corrigan, Mental Health Stigma in the Muslim Community , Stigma, 2012. ------ This question arose as a result of Medi1Saif's answer to https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/35959/17163 .

Salaam alaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh. I have very severe hemorrhoids with symptoms like intense burning, itching, and throbbing. I tried treating them with an ice pack and coconut oil but I still feel the burning and itching. I usually walk to Jummah and the masjid is about 5 km away. I fear that I may have trouble walking all the way with these symptoms and will have trouble returning. Am I sinful if I do not go and pray zhuhr instead? jazakallah khairan

**Background** According to Shia historians, one of the earliest conflicts between some of the Companions and Ahl al-Bayt is the attack on Fatima's house by Umar in order to arrest/subdue Ali, who refused to give his Bay'ah to Abu Bakr. According to Sulaym ibn Qays, Umar set the door on fire, pushing his way into the house. Upon Fatima's resistance, Umar physically assaulted her using a sheathed sword. While this narration mentions a fight between Ali and Umar, others (Ibn Abi'l-Hadid for example) claim that Ali was busy at the Funeral of the Prophet and did not witness the incident. ibn Qays later mentions that Fatima still carried the bruises from this raid when she died soon after. Some Shia also believe that Muhsin ibn Ali, the youngest son of Ali, brother of Husayn, was killed in miscarriage due to Umar's attack. **How was Ali's reception?** I fail to find later any response from Ali later on this attack; moreover, Islamic historians (both Shia and Sunnah) show later collaboration between both Ali and Umar. Although Shia books mention some clashes, none of them are related to the incident. I personally interpret this incident (if we were to believe the narration's authenticity) to be a great insult to Ahl al-Bayt. My question is: Was there any reverberation from Ali or the early Shia of Ali on this incident? If the answer is no, why?

What evidence from Quran or Hadith is there that they will come flying to us, as claimed by Islamqa.info. jazakhallah

Salams all - I'm wondering about charging money for an Islamic dream interpretation service that I provide via my online tool Dreamstate (https://dreamstateai.replit.app/) . It costs me money to provide the tool (about $100 per month for various AI products that support authentic interpretations), not to mention the time away from paid work to build and improve it (significantly more $). The first 3 dreams are free, then I currently charge a minimal amount for lifetime unlimited access ($4). I have had feedback that Islamic services like this should be free entirely. But if I charge nothing, I can't continue to work on it. As a skilled revert who is otherwise unsupported financially, should I give up on building Islamic tools and go get other work? Then my skills would not be used to benefit the ummah. How does this work? I understand the premise but surely the context matters. Have genuinely been wondering about this for a while so any insights from anyone = appreciated

Assalamualaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh, It has been said that each prayer has a specific hikmah behind it. For instance, it has been said that for fajr, it was because Adam عليه السلام saw darkness and became afraid and so prayed a rak’at due to fear, and when it became light he prayed another rak’at due to gratefulness — and this became Fajr. (Source: https://www.islamweb.net/ar/library/content/307/1937/باب-الصلاة-الوسطى-أي-الصلوات-هي-) Is this true? JazakAllah khair

I am trying to verify the authenticity of a hadith that has been transmitted through the following chain of narrators:- ***Khalid bin Yazeed Ansari <= Ibn Abi Zi’b <= Nafee <= Ibn Omar <= Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu'alaihiwassalam)*** What is the status of Khalid bin Yazid Ansari in this chain and is this chain acceptable?

Imam al-Shafi‘i (may Allah have mercy on him) said in his famous book Al-Um: > و قال الامام الشافعي رحمه الله في كتاب "الأم" : وهكذا لو كانت منفردة > به ، أو مع أمة له يطؤها ، أمر بتقوى الله عز وجل ، وألا يضر بها في > الجماع ، ولم يفرض عليه منه شيء بعينه ، إنما يفرض عليه ما لا صلاح لها > إلا به من نفقة وسكنى وكسوة ، وأن يأوى إليها ، فأما الجماع فموضع تلذذ > ولا يجبر أحد عليه. (كتاب الأم، الجزء 6، الصفحة 482، باب الخلع والنشوز) Here’s a precise English translation of the passage from Imam al-Shafi‘i’s Al-Um (Vol. 6, p. 482, Chapter on Khul‘ and Nushuz): > "And likewise, if she is alone with him, or with a female slave whom > he has intercourse with, he is commanded to fear Allah Almighty and > not to harm her in sexual relations. Nothing specific is prescribed > for him regarding this; rather, what is required of him is what she > cannot do without—namely, providing her with maintenance, > accommodation, clothing, and taking her in. As for sexual intercourse, > it is a matter of pleasure, and no one can be compelled to it." Is Imam Shafi'i talking about MEN only i.e. intercourse is a matter of pleasure only for MEN and they cannot be compelled to do it? Or is he talked about both MEN and WOMEN (wife and concubine) in general?

> *Hold on to your salah, because if you lose that, you will lose > everything else.* **—Umar ibn al-Khattab** (May Allah be pleased with him.) What is a reliable source I can cite to record this quote?

Salam . I am a married woman with 2 kids . I have been smoking ciggs for 6,7 years now . Ever since I moved to uk and especially after kids , I started smoking more . My husband caught me smoking a week back and forced me to hold the Quran and ans his questions . He asked when I started smoking , I answered that I started after my second child was born although in my mind I was thinking “restarted “ as I had quit during the years I was pregnant and didnot want him to know that I had been smoking for so long . I was scared he might take a big step . Although afterwards I held the Quran again and answered all his questions correctly stating it’s been more than 7 years . I am now very concerned as I think I might have swore falsely on Quran .

Asalamalaykum everyone I am having an issue, basically what happened is that I masturbasted, and I thought all the semen had been released, so I urinated to make sure that there was no semen in the passage. a few hours later when I used the washroom, I saw some other liquid substance that was about to come out while I was peeing, but I held it in, this has happened before, when after ejaculation, I urinated and made ghusl, but after going to the washroom some hours later some sticky discharge came out after I was done peeing, there was no desire or anything, I am very confused should I do ghusl again? Or is this permissible, please help.

I have two marriage contracts with the same person. The first marriage took place in a foreign country with a **lower amount of mehr**, and the second contract was executed in our home country with a **higher amount of mehr**. However, before finalizing the first contract, both parties agreed on the higher amount of haq mehr which is mentioned in the **second contract.** The first marriage contract in the foreign country was happened because the marriage court did not permit a higher amount of mehr; there is a maximum limitation on haq mehr in that foreign country. Both our families also live in foreign countries. We did this to simplify the visa transfer process from the bride's father to the groom. Additionally, at that time, both families could not travel to our home country for other reasons. As a result, the first marriage ceremony occurred in the foreign country, and eight months later, the second marriage took place in our home country. **From an Islamic perspective, I would like to clarify which marriage contract holds validity, whether it is the first or the second.** I agree to pay the amount of haq mehr mentioned in the second marriage.

Exposing knees infront of family members

I have committed major sins in the past but now want to achive forgiveness please tell me is there any zikr that can help me from erasing major sins? I will also do tauba

Salam Aleikum I am a revert Muslim since November 2016 but before I reverted although I used to believe in Allah (SWT) as one and only true God and in Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) as the last Messanger of Allah (SWT) I was not a practicing Muslim at all and during that time unfortunately I made a huge mistake which today I strongly regret, I am addicted to porn and masturbation and In June 2016 I promissed Allah (SWT) that I would quit watching porn And masturbation and if I would return back to my addiction then he could throw me in the hellfire on the day of judgement even if I worship him in this life and even though I repent to him. Unfortunately i only lasted 33 days and after that I returned to my addiction and and so unfortunately I broke that promise which I made to Allah (SWT), now I’m truly worried that Allah (SWT) might not forgive me for my foolishness and im worried that he might punish me on the day of judgement even though I became a Muslim and even though I seek his forgiveness, my question is that although I made a huge mistake by making that type of promise, do I have a chance to truly repent to Allah (SWT) knowing that I made that promise in 2016 and is there hope for me despite having made that promise in 2016 which I am truly sorry for now?

Is sunnah prayer from Allah or from muhammad (saw), because it is called sunnah and sunnah is related to muhammad ( saw).