Assalamu Alaikum. I am really scared about this. The thing is that Me and someone else (a fellow) transgressed against someone's right. He gave me an idea and i just remained silent and he did the transgression (so i am also involved in this). Now after being guided it has come to my mind that i should apologize to the person whose right we transgressed against and also restore his right in some way if possible but by telling him that we did such a thing would expose the fellow with whom i trangressed . **So should I hide his sin or apologize to the person by exposing him?**

The following hadith says: > Abu Hurairah (May Allah be pleased with him) said: > > The Messenger of > Allah (ﷺ) said: "A man (from amongst the people before you) said: > 'Indeed! I will give in charity.' So he took his Sadaqah out and > placed it in a thief's hand. > > In the morning the people were talking > (about this incident) and saying: 'Sadaqah was given to a thief last > night.' The man said: 'O Allah! Praise be to You. I have given Sadaqah > to a thief. Indeed, I will give in charity!' So he took his Sadaqah > out and he placed it in a prostitute's hand. > > In the morning the people > were talking (about this incident) and saying: 'Sadaqah was given to a > prostitute last night.' On hearing this, the man said: 'Praise be to > You, O Allah! I gave Sadaqah to a prostitute. > > Indeed, I will give in > charity!' So he took his Sadaqah out and placed it in a rich man's > hand. In the morning the people were talking (about this incident) and > saying: 'Sadaqah was given to a rich man last night.' The man said: 'O > Allah! Praise be to You (for helping me) give charity to a thief, a > prostitute and a rich man.' > > Then he had a dream in which he was told > that his Sadaqah to the thief might result in his refraining from his > theft, his Sadaqah to the prostitute might help her abstain from her > immorality, and his Sadaqah to the rich man might help him pay heed > and spend from what Allah had bestowed upon him." > >[ \[Al- Bukhari\]][1] . This hadith seems to imply that giving money to a rich person is sadaqah. However, it is unclear if this rule apply to the Ummah because it may be a story about people of other prophets (the rules revealed to other prophets don't apply to us). Is giving gifts or money to a rich person regarded as Sadaqah?

It is considered bad to drink while standing up but I was reading somewhere that eating while standing isn't considered bad. Is that true? Is there a hadith or source behind it? The reason I want to find is that I run 2 families and some of the people eat standing up which leaves a bad impression on young mind and they follow and I want to set a good example with a reference that is valid.

What is the prescribed punishment if one kills their slave intentionally? Is there a hadd punishment? Does blood money have to be paid? What does Sharia have to say about this?

It's said that surah 80 of the Quran is revealed in regards to [Ibn Umm Maktum](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ibn_Umm_Maktum) . My question is about the meaning of the name of this person. I'm not Arab. As much as I know, Ibn means son, and Umm means mother. So, this confuses me. Does his name literally means son of the mother of Maktum? Is it a strange linguistic feature of classical Arabic?

I had a specific question related to the Nikah and death contract. In the schools of Fiqh, is the marriage contract considered "void" or "cancelled" or "paused" at the time of death with the spouse? If so, I would like to have some sources on this subject and I would also like to know how it is explained that we find our wives in Paradise as explained in this verse: "Enter Paradise, you and your wives, you will be celebrated there". Surah 43 verse 70. Thank you in advance!

Can one do sadaqa out of haram income? Is it acceptable to almighty? Or almighty will punish him who will pay sadaqa out of haram income?

I was taught to recite [14:40-41] in my salah: > Our Lord, forgive me **and my parents** and the believers the Day the account is established." [14:41] And the verse 9:113 says I cannot ask forgiveness for non-believers after they have passed away. > It is not for the Prophet and those who have believed to ask forgiveness for the polytheists, even if they were relatives, after it has become clear to them that they are companions of Hellfire.[9:113] How can a person with non-muslim parents recite 14:41 in his salah or in general when it contradicts ayah 9:113 (the rule that he cannot ask forgiveness for dead non-muslims)?

I am trying to construct a timeline of Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him). Specifically, the last time he was in *itikaf*. I am sure there are English sources out there, but my (very) quick search, I did not come across one. I used an online calculator and I found that it should be between December 20 631, and December 30. Can somebody confirm that?

I was watching TV and a person who was being regarded as scholar said that It's ok to touch Qur'an without wudu.. He quoted an ayah, I guess it was this one; > لَّا يَمَسُّهُ إِلَّا الْمُطَهَّرُونَ [Surat Al-Wāqi`ah - 79](http://quran.com/56/79) translated by Sahih International as; > None touch it except the purified. And said that this ayah doesn't mention wudu but clean intentions. He said something like this ayah means only the ones with pure heart can benefit from Qur'an. Also said that Muslims are clean (I guess he meant as in good-heartedness). He further explained that there weren't any compiled Qur'an at the time of Prophet (pbuh), so this ayah can't be about physical touching to Qur'an. He advised this (meaning having to do wudu) shouldn't discourage Muslims to read Qur'an. This is the first time I am hearing such interpretation. Is there any truth in this? If so, why are we told to do wudu before touching Qur'an, is it traditional?

As far as I know the slaves were non Muslim, and if there accept Islam they cannot be kept as slaves Adwa’ al-Bayaan, 3/387 > Shaykh al-Shanqeeti (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: > > If it is said: If the slave is a Muslim, how can he be kept as a slave > if the reason for which people may be taken as slaves is if they are > kaafirs who are waging war against Allaah and His Messenger? Source: islamqa.info https://islamqa.info/amp/en/answers/13737 So my question is what should a master do if his slave woman wants to convert right before intercourse(or during foreplay). Should he stop or continue the act?

Chicken, beef, mutton themselves are not Nijas but slaughtering process makes them halal or haram. It's not about food but it's about saying Allah's name. By this argument, Can we consume vegetables cooked in same pot as Chicken. For example Macdonalds, KFC, subway etc, what if they cook potato fries and Chicken in same pot. Can we eat fries? If not then why not.

There's [another post that talks about something similar](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/37685/does-a-soul-have-a-gender) but I could not get the answer to whether we were males and females before we were assigned bodies and sent into this world. We do see references to us being husbands and wives in Paradise, so that means that the gender from this world will somehow continue in the afterlife, but my question is more about the life *before* this life.

Is dueling permitted in Islam? If so, what are the terms? For example, if one man has a wife who has been taken in war (not given over by her father) and another man demands her, can the suitor challenge the possessor to a duel for the woman?

What is the difference between katb Al-kitab and aqdun-nikah

In a conversation someone claimed that certain sects allow for a greater limit on polygamy such as 9 or 18 women based on their understanding of the Qur'an. Is this true? How do they argue their stance?

**Opinion** **I believe that Grave Punishment Exist** Some people are looking for that, is there any verse in Quran about of the grave punishment? Some people are disagree about of the grave punishment, also some people asked that to me, there are some difference of opinion also in the Muslim People . **Note** I read those verses (Below) and also some scholars say that those verses indicate/refer to the Grave Punishment and also I read and heard from some people, Who are refer those verse to the grave punishment.. **Question** *What I am looking for?* if I anything I misunderstood please mention and Is there any more verse in The Holy Quran, Which are refer/indicate to The Grave Punishment, please Give it, also I will be happy if anyone provide tefsser for below those verse... **Praise be to Allah & Allah Know the Best & Secret** **First Verse** يُضَـٰعَفۡ لَهُ ٱلۡعَذَابُ يَوۡمَ ٱلۡقِيَـٰمَةِ وَيَخۡلُدۡ فِيهِۦ مُهَانًا Multiplied for him is the punishment on the Day of Resurrection, and he will abide therein humiliated From [this link]( https://qurano.com/en/25-al-furqan/verse-69/) many of them translate this word يُضَـٰعَفۡ as Doubled. **Surah Al-Furqan Verse 69 | 25:69 Quran** This verse refers to the grave punishment. (Allah Know the Best & Secret ) what is the meaning of Doubled? Example As : I paid someone 5 dollar for work, when I Hired him second time , I promised that I will pay doubled amount, before what amount I gave In general sense I understood that Allah will give one punishment before on the Day of Resurrection. on the Day of Resurrection, It will double/multiplied **Second Verse** And among those around you of the bedouins are hypocrites, and [also] from the people of Madinah. They have become accustomed to hypocrisy. You, [O Muhammad], do not know them, [but] We know them. We will punish them twice [in this world]; then they will be returned to a great punishment. **Surah At-Tawba Verse 101 | 09: 101 Quran** [link](https://qurano.com/en/9-at-tawba/verse-101/) in this verse _We will punish them twice_ also indicate/refer to the grave punishment Third Verse “The Day their plan will not avail them at all, nor will they be helped. And indeed, for those who have wronged is a punishment before that, but most of them do not know.” - **Surah At-Tur Verse 46-47| 52: 46- 47 Quran** [link](https://qurano.com/en/52-at-tur/verse-46/) [link](https://qurano.com/en/52-at-tur/verse-47/) The term “punishment before that” refers that before the ultimate judgment day disbelievers and wrongdoers will face torment and punishment in their graves. **Fourth Verse** Every soul will taste death. And you will only receive your full reward on the Day of Judgment. Whoever is spared from the Fire and is admitted into Paradise will ˹indeed˺ triumph, whereas the life of this world is no more than the delusion of enjoyment. ***Surah Al-Imaran Verse 185 | 03: 185 Quran*** ``you will only receive your full reward on the Day of Judgment'' also refer to the grave punishment (Allah Know the Best & Secret ) as a Muslim I know that, Sometimes Allah reward people instantly for their good/bad deeds. If not reward instantly, Allah will reward you on the Day of Judgment

Is there any Islamic basis for doing that?

Is Surah Luqman Verse 6 regarding him? >### ومن الناس من يشتري لهو الحديث ليضل عن سبيل الله بغير علم ويتخذها هزوا أولئك لهم عذاب مهين > > And of the people is he who buys the amusement of speech to mislead [others] from the way of Allah without knowledge and who takes it in ridicule. Those will have a humiliating punishment. > > — [Quran 31:6](http://quran.com/31/6)

There seems to be a commonly held belief that the prophet Muhammad (and the prophets in general) are somehow protected from ever committing any sin. I have seen nothing in the Qur'an to suggest this, nor am I aware of any authentic hadith to support this claim. It has always been my understanding that the prophets are men like any other, specially chosen by the Almighty to relay His message but not necessarily granted any rights and privileges other than what He has explicitly stated; the Christians for example make a big deal about Jesus being sinless, but they have evidence from their own Scriptures to support this. Even if the other prophets were among the best men of their generation, they would still be susceptible to the same trials and temptations of any other man, and thus to sinning. **Question:** Note that I am not asking whether the prophets were *forgiven* for their sins; God is *Al-Raheem* so I have no difficulty accepting that. The question is about whether the prophets in general, or Muhammad (PBUH) in particular, ever sinned in the first place. Where does this Islamic belief of sinlessness come from? Does it have an authentic source?