Salam aleykoum, i have made it so far to stop watching porn and masturbating.So my question is can we listen to porn recordings as they don t include any nudity.And there is also the fake recordings done by professionals,do they stand for the same? Thanks for all the answers(pls i need answers with proves,coran or hadith if possible)

A question has been already asked here regarding the ways that how Qur'an was transmitted and how it was preserved. But my question is different. I was reading some Q-A on our sister SE sites and came across this : Has the Quran preserved since Muhammad ? The top answer concluded that it can't be said surely and hence **NO** . It mentioned some hadiths to support too. How do muslim scholars explain these ? P.S.: I understand that proving the authenticity of an answer on any other SE site sentence by sentence is not a great thing to do. However, since the preservation of Quran is unanimously believed to be the greatest living miracle by muslims and central to Islam, I can't resist to ask. Thanks, I hope for an answer clearing all doubts.! If you think that this question can be edited and made be better , please feel free to edit it.

> No, it is not halal to eat the meat of a dead human being in Islam. The consumption of human flesh is strictly prohibited in Islam, regardless of the circumstances. In the Quran, God states that he has created all of the inhabitants of the earth for the purpose of living in peace and harmony, and that no one has the right to take the life of another person or to consume their flesh. The Prophet Muhammad also taught that the taking of a single human life is equivalent to the destruction of all of humanity, and that the punishment for such a grave sin is severe. As such, it is never acceptable to eat the meat of a dead human being, regardless of the circumstances. I have been answered by [ChatGPT](https://chat.openai.com/chat) to the question *"Is it halal to eat meat of dead human being if there is nothing to eat in Islam?"* Do you agree? Why?

Husband and wife after intimacy, they didn’t take shower, direct had have their suhoor and didn’t prayed fajr! And took bath in the mid day! Would the fasting of thiers be counted as valid?

I live in a place where no women have the option of going to masjid. We pray at home. Moreover, I have some physical limitation and I can not go anywhere right now. I don't think I have anyone who I could ask to do congregational prayer with me inside the home. We are still left with 23rd, 25th, 27th and 29th nights of Ramadan. I really want to offer isha and fajr in congregation. 1. Can I pray in congregation while playing a audio/video of congregational prayer in some masjid in the world? 2. Would you know any such video on YouTube may be, which I can play and then offer my salah along in order to be a part of the congregation?

If you make or say an oath in your mind and your lips are closed but your tongue is moving inside your mouth would that be valid?

To the best of my knowledge, whenever Allah or His angels perform tawaffa on someone it only means sleep or death. 25+ times only death: وتوفنا مع الأبرار 3:193 الذين يتوفون منكم 2:234 & 2:240 توفني مسلما وألحقني بالصالحين 12:101 و لكن أعبد الله الذي يتوفاكم 10:104 و منكم من يتوفى 22:5 توفته رسلنا و هم لا يفرطون 6:61 And regarding the Holy Prophet (sa) 10:46 & 13:40 & 40:77 فإما نرينك بعض الذي نعدهم أو نتوفينك etc. 2 times it can also mean sleep, but in both cases there is a clear indicator present: 39:42 - في منامها in their sleep 6:60 - بالليل in the night So to the best of my knowledge whenever Allah does tawaffa on someone it means taking their soul. In the case of death he keeps the soul. In the case of sleep he sends it back to the body. So how does tawaffa mean "take [the physical body, implied by most Muslims]" in the context of Jesus (as)? Where else in the Quran is tawaffa used like this? (When Allah is the فاعل and a souled being is the مفعول) Jazakallah

So I have decided to fast for Ramadan for the first time this year and have kept the dry fast decently so far. But, I have a masturbation addiction. I know it’s considered as haram whether it’s Ramadan or not, but the least I want to do is to at least not break the fast during this month. I did search and found out that if you don’t ejaculate semen, then the fast is still valid. However, I did not find any source that specified about orgasm. I did orgasm, but did not ejaculate. But is the fast still valid? And if it’s broken now, do I eat normally or do I still wait for iftar? Also, do I really have to do the 60 people feeding etc? Not able to afford that. Thanks in advance. 🙏🏻

It is laylut al qadr tonight, and before i prayed maghreb, my parents had gotten into an argument and things have occurred. i was about to miss my maghreb prayer so i just tried to get it out of my head and prayed. Alhamdulilah i was focused but i suddenly broke down into tears. i was surprised as i couldn’t even catch my breath while praying, yet i was still reading properly and focused on my prayer. My question is, is this a disruption to my prayer or a good sign? i am quite worried about if it disrupted my praying or not.

Can it be done at any time before the next salah begins (providing it isn't during a forbidden time), or should it be done as soon as possible? Is it sunnah to pray as soon as you can, or fard/wajib?

People often say that it is better to offer salat in the beginning of the permissible time, rather than delaying salat till later **in** the permissible time window. Is there Quranic verse or authentic hadith to support this? Another way to ask this question is that in the light of Quran and/or authentic hadith, is salah offered in the beginning of permissible time bracket better than that offered towards the end (but still within) the permissible time bracket, or are both the salahs equal in terms of reward?

Salam Alaikum, I have been on the wrong path for a long time and Al Hamdulillah recently came back to Islam and been doing my best to follow. One pillar I didn’t follow yet is Zakat, I started doing Sadaqah but I realize recently it’s not the same as Zakat. I just learned that if a person misses Zakat, they need to pay all that they have missed. Which is based on my understanding: 1. Since age of puberty (~12 years old for men) 2. Owning over the amount of Nisab for one lunar year Which means if you have money / assets that are over the Nisab value, then you are required to pay Zakat. Now here is the big challenge: I have no idea how much I owned, and for how long. How do I pay missed Zakat when I have no idea and it’s over 20 years of missed Zakat? Please help me understand and ask me any questions to clarify. Thank you

Why it is necessary to stand towards Kiblah (the Holy Ka’bah) while praying, while Allah is everywhere and does not have a specific direction?

I work for a mortgage company which makes it money from commission and interest. But my job title is related to the web, and all I do is on the web. Lately, I been in an argument with my spouse, as she wants to stop a life insurance policy that has her name as beneficiary if something happens to me, because, according to her, it's not allowed in Islam. Thus... If life insurance is forbidden, then how is working at a mortgage company which takes commission and interest justified?

Khalid ibn Walid slaughtered the Banu Judhaimah, when this news reached the Prophet (ﷺ) he said: "O Allah! I am free from what Khalid has done." (Sahih al-Bukhari 4339). Also he killed Malik ibn Nuwayrah and slept with his wife, 'Umar wanted to stone him for adultery and punish him for killing a Muslim and called him an enemy of Allah. (Tarikh Al-Islam 3/36, Jami Al ahadith 13/94, Tarikh at Tabari 2/274)

From this answer: https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/79276/54227 > 5. > "I said nothing to them except that which Thou didst command me — ‘Worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord.’ And I was a witness over them > as long as I remained among them, but since Thou didst cause me to > die, Thou hast been the Watcher over them; and Thou art Witness over > all things." (5:117). > > This verse also uses tawaffa as توفيتني, ie. you caused me to die. > Naturally, here contemporary translators also change the meaning of > the Quran and use "you raised me up" though here it makes even less > sense. > > In this verse Jesus (as) is showing that he is unaware of what his > people did after his passing. He says that all he did was tell his > people to worship God, and that as long as he was with them he made > sure they didn't do otherwise. Now, if Jesus (as) is to come back, and > inform all the Christians of their falsehood, then Jesus (as) talking > as he does in this verse makes no sense. Since in this verse there is > no mention of Jesus (as) knowing what happened to his people after his > passing. In fact, if he did know, he would say here that, Oh God, my > people started to worship me – but don't worry You sent me back and I > stopped them from this and brought them back to the truth. But this is > nowhere mentioned. Not in this verse nor anywhere else in the Quran. > How could the Quran be blind to such a glaring fact? I want to know how do Muslims who believe Jesus (as) is alive can respond to this argument.

Here is Surat An-Nisa' 4/159: > And there is none from the People of the Scripture but that he will surely believe in Jesus before **his death**. And on the Day of Resurrection he will be against them a witness. source The question is, whose death is this? Is it belong to Jesus(puh), or a person from the People of the Scripture? Generally, what does this verse say? Please, give answers supported by Quran, word meaning (from Arabic), maybe historical background, and then lastly supported by hadith. A mixture would be great! Thanks.

I want to wear shorts at home but don't know if I could I'm the only girl in my family so what do I do?

From this answer: https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/79276/54227 > 19. > "None amongst the created beings would survive after one hundred years. Salim said: We made a mention of it to him (Jabir), whereupon > he said: It means those who had been living on that day." (Sahih > Muslim 2538e Book 44, Hadith 315) > > Even if Jesus (as) was alive at the time of the Holy Prophet (sa) then > he wouldn't be 100 years after that day. > > There are some versions of this Hadith that use the words على ظهر > الأرض, on the face of the earth. However, mufassirin of old such as > Al-Alusi in Ruh-ul-Maani have used this Hadith to infer that Ilyas > (as) and Khidr have passed away, even though Ilyas (as) is also argued > by some to have been lifted bodily to the heavens (which is the > context given by Al-Alusi as he mentions this hadith). So if this > verse only applies to humans physically present on earth (and so Jesus > (as) would be an exception) then how could mufassirin apply this verse > to Ilyas (ra) I want to know how do Muslims who believe Jesus (as) is alive can respond to this argument.

I have been reading a few things regarding Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم marriage with a woman called Fatimah bint Dhahak. She was also called by other names such as Amrah bent e Yazid bin Kilab, Aliya bint E Zubyan, and Saba bint e Sufyan, etc. In the reports it has been mentioned that Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم diveroced her and Asma bint e Numan because they were suffering from leprosy. What is the authenticity of these reports? Please note that according to [THIS SOURCE](https://www.alsirah.com/%D8%B0%D9%83%D8%B1-%D8%AA%D8%A7%D8%B1%D9%8A%D8%AE-%D9%88%D9%81%D8%A7%D9%87-%D8%A7%D8%B2%D9%88%D8%A7%D8%AC-%D8%B1%D8%B3%D9%88%D9%84-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%84%D9%87-%D8%B5-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%84%D8%A7%D8%AA%D9%8A/) apparently one such report is reported to us through the following chain of narrators:- ***قال: وحدثنا عبد الله بن جعفر، عن موسى بن سعيد وابن ابى عون*** This chain of narrator could be found [HERE](http://www.shiaonlinelibrary.com/%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%83%D8%AA%D8%A8/3473_%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%85%D9%86%D8%AA%D8%AE%D8%A8-%D9%85%D9%86-%D8%B0%D9%8A%D9%84-%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%85%D8%B0%D9%8A%D9%84-%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B7%D8%A8%D8%B1%D9%8A/%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%B5%D9%81%D8%AD%D8%A9_104#top) in Tabri's Al-Muntakhab Min Dhayl Al-Mudhil. Here is a screenshot of chain of narrators:- ***So, what is the authenticity of the Isnad that I mentioned above?*** This is what I found about Asma bint Numan in Sirah Ibn Hisham:- **So, my question is: What is the authenticity of narration that says that Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم divorced BOTH Asma and Fatimah (Amarah) because they were suffering from leprosy?**