As salamu walikum rahmatullahi barakatuh How to understand these verses, Allah says during hardship such as during sailing if polytheist come across hardship, they would ignore their idols and call upon Allah. But let say a Hindu, he will call upon Krishna or ram, Christian will call upon Jesus, atheist might not call upon any god. How to understand these verses?

From this question https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/4205/17163 , the OP writes: > **It is agreed upon that piracy is theft** according to the question Where does Islam stand on Internet Piracy? I'm respectfully contesting this claim in this question in the context of fiqh. **Question**: Is piracy a form of theft for the purposes of fiqh? In anticipation of answers which don't carefully read the question, *I'm not contesting whether or not piracy is halal/haram*; I'm contesting whether or not it's classed as theft (which may result in hadd punishment ) or something else (not necessarily requiring hadd punishment). The answers to the question Where does Islam stand on Internet Piracy? are all of the form "someone on the Internet said so" (specifically, "...this becomes copyright infringement, or stealing", "...it is still considered stealing" and "...you are not stealing anything"). Consequently, **I'm looking for authoritative sources**, e.g., fatawa. (Please back up responses and refrain from adding yet another "someone on the Internet said so" answer.) ---- Online fatawa generally seem to refrain from calling it theft. Here's what I've found via Google: - Islam Q&A 81614 quotes from fiqh councils; they declare it impermissible, but do not declare it theft. Indeed, they even go so far as to write: > Some of our scholars think that it is haraam to do this (copy things) for the purpose of selling them, but if a person makes a copy just for himself, that is permissible. In other words, "some of our scholars" argue that it's halal for personal use, and therefore is not considered theft (which is haram). - IslamWeb 132937 , 305998 , 326746 , 327097 also refrain from describing it as theft, instead using the far more tempered description "...the opinion adopted at Islamweb is that copyright ... are recognized and protected by the sharee'ah". - AskImam 949 , 25083 likewise refrains from calling it theft, with 949 even quoting Mufti Taqi Uthmani 's description of the attitudes of a "group of contemporary scholars": > ...there is no precedent in the Holy Qur'an, in the Sunnah or in the juristic views of the earlier Muslim jurists where an intangible object has been subjected to private ownership or to sale and purchase. They further argue that 'knowledge' in Islam is not the a property of an individual, nor can he prevent others form acquiring knowledge, whereas the concept of 'intellectual property' leads to the monopoly of some individuals' knowledge, which can never be accepted by Islam. - IslamQA.org: DarulUloomTT.org , AskImam 15940 , AskImam 19162 also refrain from calling it theft. Moreover, another fatwa listed on IslamQA.org writes: > In our understanding, copyrighting (attaching the clause of copyright) in itself is an act of oppression and injustice. -- Muftionline.co.za I found a single terse fatwa on IslamQA Darulifta-Deoband.org which described it as theft: > ...a lot of piracy takes place and piracy is a kind of theft and it is considered illegal but still it takes [place]... Is it allowed or not in Islamic view? > ... > Theft is not allowed in these matters also. The following searches returned no hits: site:askamufti.com piracy, site:fatwa-online.com piracy, site:sunnipath.com piracy. **Keep in mind that my search was limited to English-language fatawa.** ---- This question is related to: - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/29576/17163 and https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/16670/17163 , which asks about justifications for software piracy, - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/20219/17163 , which asks how bad software piracy is (which didn't get answered quantitatively); this question here is more specific, - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/18762/17163 , https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/23611/17163 , https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/34761/17163 , which ask in the context of books - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/13168/17163 I found several other answers on Islam.SE which again take the form of "someone on the Internet said so": - https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/11772/17163 , where one of the answers described software piracy as "basically stealing" and another said "piracy is theft". - Regarding https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/600/17163 , the top answers write "Piracy is stealing, plain and simple" and "Obviously, piracy is stealing by definition". - The answer to https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/4205/17163 writes "this kind of theft is not like normal theft". (And a recent Islam.SE user comment indicated surprise at my attitude that "piracy" is a crime distinct from "theft".)

In Surah Nisa, verse 136, Allah says: Before the first stop (jeem), Allah describes the Qur'an with "nazzala" (نَزَّلَ), while he describes the previous books with "anzala" (أَنزَلَ). Both of these come from the same root verb, nazala, which means "to descend, to go down." The first is baab two, which is a more severe form, while the second looks like the form used often when you cause something to happen (eg. make something descend). But my Arabic is rusty. What exactly is the difference of meaning of these two verbs, and what's the implication here?

In my community there are women who get (before any colour change due to drying or external oxidation) pale yellow discharge alongside clear and white in their tuhr period, during the 15 day gap and onwards until the next real, medical, red/brown/pink/orange/darkyellow period. This is noticeably distinct from the darker and more saturated yellow seen right at the end of menstruation, as it is pale and likely hormonal. A woman would like to adopt the maliki madhab and she would like to know whether this normal daily pale yellow discharge can be considered as non-menses in this madhab. She wants to carry on ruling that this pale yellow is tuhr. Can she do that?

If somehow urine splits onto my pants and then it becomes dry and then I touched that part with wet hand, is my hand impure? Again if the dry part again comes in contact with water and becomes wet and I touched it then what is the ruling? I also want to share that I live in a residential school. Here public toilets are used. Beside the toilet there is basin. Sometimes I walk and water falls on my leg while walk in from the mixture of water on the floor. What can I do? Again in the commodor it seems hard to me in case of purification. I want to use tissue paper for this. But there is scholarly difference regarding whether using water farz or not? What is the correct ruling? What should I do for this? I am very much fearful regarding the matter about my salat becoming correct or not as I fear whether I am pure or not? Please suggest me to solve my problem with Quranic verses and Hadith quotes.

I recently shifted to European country and for my surprise there are no bidet or Muslim showers, so I was told that people use toilet paper. Given that, does one ablution break or does one have to do it again (sometimes your out of house). Is there any fatwa for it about cleanness and ablution?

The maxim الْيَقِينُ لَا يَزُولُ بِالشَّكِّ ‘Certainty rules over doubt’ is used by many scholars. I want to know where this Maxim was derived from Also is there an ijma for this Maxim?

If a woman has breast feeded a girl once for a very little time and the same woman has a son, is it permissible that her son and that girl marries( she has breast feeded only once to that girl). They have already fixed the marriage.

During Ramadan I would pray after it’s prescribed times without knowing it’s haram to do so. Later I found out that all my prayers during Ramadan were invalid due to this habit. Since my prayers were invalid in Ramadan are my fasts accepted? Because I hear if one doesn’t pray during Ramadan his fasts won’t be accepted. and in this case I did pray but my prayers weren’t valid

money earned by haram means and given to charity will not benefit. if I earn money in a haram way, invest it in a halal business, will this money be considered halal? sort of launder money

In the chain of narration (sanad), it is often written in English: 1. Some narrator in the authority of some other narrator 2. Some narrator informed some other narrator 3. Some narrator related before some other narrator I wish to understand the meaning of each of this statements. My questions are - 1) Do the said English phrases have the same meaning (maybe very little difference)? 2) If not, what is the implication of each? a. Especially 'Some narrator related before some other narrator' sounds a bit odd. What does 'related before' mean? b. What does 'in the authority of' mean? c. How did some narrator 'inform' some other narrator? Orally? By letter? Sent a messenger? Example: "Shams al-Din related before us; he said:" from Ibn Sa'ad. > The Shaykh, the Imam, the Hafiz, the most learned, the well versed in genealogies, Sharaf al-Din (the glory of religion) Abu Muhammad Abd al-Mumin Ibn Khalaf Ibn Abi al-Hasan al-Dimyati (may God show him mercy) informed us, and I was hearing; he said: The Shaykh, the Imam, the Muhaddith of Syria and the trusted Shams al-Din Abu al-Hajjaj Yusuf Ibn Khalil Ibn Abd Allah al-Dimashqi related before us; he said: Abu Muhammad Abd Allah Ibn Dahbal Ibn Ali Ibn Karah related before us; he said: Al-qadi Abu Bakr Muhammad Ibn Abd al-Baqi Ibn Muhammad Ibn Abd Allah al-Ansari related before us; he said: Abu Muhammad al-Hassan Ibn Ali Ibn Muhammad Ibn al-Hasan Ibn Abd Allah al-Jawhari narrated on the authority of Abu Umar Muhammad Ibn al-Abbas Ibn Muhammad Ibn Zakariyya Ibn Yahya Ibn Mu'adh Ibn Hayyawayh al-Khazzaz (silk merchant), from (i.e. on the authority of) Abu al-Hasan Ahmad Ibn Ma'ruf Ibn Bishr Ibn Musa al-Khashshab (timber merchant); from (i.e. on the authority of) Abu Muhammad al-Harith Ibn Muhammad Ibn Abi Usamah al-Tamimi from (i.e. on the authority of) Abu `Adb Allah Muhammad Ibn Sa'd Ibn Muni (may God show him mercy); he (i.e. Ibn Sa'd) said: Also look at the English translation of the first paragraph of this page - https://www.bukhari.tv/sanad/ : > A reading on the authority of his sheikh, the knowledgeable and beloved Abd al-Qadir bin Ahmad al-Saqqaf, and he narrated it on the authority of his father, Imam Ahmad bin Abd al-Rahman al-Saqqaf, who narrated it. A reading on the authority of his sheikh, Imam Ali bin Muhammad al-Habashi, who narrated it on the authority of his sheikh, Imam Aidaroos bin Omar al-Habashi, and it is the Musnad of Hadhramaut and his name is proven. “Nahhat al-Fattah al-Fatir fi the chains of transmission of the great masters,” in which he mentioned its chain of transmission in his narrations, on the authority of his sheikh, Imam Abdullah bin Ahmad Basudan, who said: I narrated it on the authority of our sheikh, Sayyed Imam Omar bin Abdul Rahman al-Bar, on the authority of our sheikh and his sheikh, Sayyid al-Baqiyya, Hamid bin Omar bin Hamid Al Abi Alawi. On the authority of his beloved sheikh Abd al-Rahman bin Abdullah Belfaqih, on the authority of his sheikh al-Musnad al-Hasan bin Ali al-Ujaimi and Sheikh Ahmad bin Muhammad al-Mathili, on the authority of their sheikh, the hafiz of his time, Muhammad ibn Ala al-Din al-Babli, and he narrated it on the authority of Abu al-Naja Salem bin Muhammad al-Samhouri, on the authority of the conclusion of the hadith narrator, the star Muhammad ibn Ahmed Al-Ghaiti, on the authority of Sheikh Al-Islam Zakaria bin Muhammad Al-Ansari, on the authority of the Commander of the Faithful in Hadith, the Hafiz Ahmed bin Ali bin Hajar Al-Asqalani, on the authority of his sheikh Ibrahim bin Ahmed Al-Tanukhi and Abdul Rahim bin Razin Al-Hamawi, on the authority of Abi Al-Fadl Ahmed bin Abi Talib Al-Hajjar, on the authority of Al-Hussein Al-Mubarak Al-Zubaidi, on the authority of Abu Al-Waqt Abdul Awal bin Issa Al-Harawi, on the authority of Abu Al-Hasan Abdul Rahman bin Al-Muzaffar Al-Daoudi, on the authority of Abu Muhammad Abdullah bin Ahmed Al-Sarkhasi, on the authority of Abu Abdullah bin Muhammad bin Yusuf bin Matar Al-Farbari, on the authority of the Commander of the Faithful in Hadith, Abu Abdullah Muhammad bin Ismail Al-Bukhari May God Almighty have mercy on him....

I have read that gambling, pornography and alcohol among other things are haram. So would ownership in cam-girl industries and casinos, be considered haram also? Even if the person does not necessarily participate in these activities himself?

Assalamu Aleikum, I moved to Moscow for a certain reason, we all know what the attitude is towards Muslims here, it is impossible to pray anywhere except at home, the question is, I was offered a job at a bank, namely as an IT analyst, that is, I am not connected with interest, the bank itself is Turkish, it has prayer rooms and the bank itself is opposite the mosque, I plan to get experience here and in 2 years repent of this institution, what should I do? Is this haram and is my salary haram?

I'm assuming, Repentance is the condition for "redoing" shahadah. Another assumption made by me is the foundations of religion (Asl ad deen) is same from first jinn to last human. In the incident of calf and bani israil . Allah set execution as condition for acceptance of repentance for those muslims who worshipped the calf. > However, Allah did not accept the repentance of those who worshipped the calf except by death. Those who were willing to be executed would receive Allah’s pardon and enter jannah. Those who did not surrender themselves for execution would never be forgiven by Allah. This was a gruelling trial of sincerity the whole of Bani Israel, because Allah had commanded that the wrongdoers were to be executed by the hands of the believers. Source: https://hadithoftheday.com/prophet-musa-as-part-v/ Since repentance wasn't accepted by Allah until execution, how did muslims of bani israil redo shahadah after committing major shirk? So ultimately the question, where is it mentioned in Quran and sunnah that a muslim who commits major shirk needs to redo shahadah? Islamweb doesn't say to repeat shahadah to a person who commited shirk. https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.islamweb.net/amp/en/fatwa/89591/

I'm muslim and im in a relationship with a Muslim girl. And our distance is too much.that's we we never meet each other. I know our distance was too much but our understanding was so perfect. I want to nikah with her after getting a job.But for this moment i have only 3-4 years.will allah together us?🫠

is it enough to wash private part just with water until madhy or mani is gone. I mean when we wash our private part with water only there is traces of mani or madhi on tip area which can be removed by soap. can i know is it sufficient to wash with water only without using soap or do we need to wash completely

Does not taking a second wife (even after being able to treat wives fairly) fall under the category of imitating disbelievers? I heard that Abd ul aziz bin baz stated that in his book. Is it true? If a man is happy with one wife and doesn't want to take another (even after being financially stable to support second wife),then is he imitating disbelievers or going against sunnah?

Does Quran 21:31 mean the mountains prevent the earth from moving also same with Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3369 can someone explain it to me? Because the verse says that the mountains prevent the earth from moving and I am confused. Quran 21:31 > And We have placed firm mountains upon the earth so it does not shake with them, and made in it broad pathways so they may find their way > Jami` at-Tirmidhi 3369 >The Prophet said: “When Allah created the earth, it started shaking. So He created the mountains, and said to them: ‘Upon it’ so it began to settle.

A company is doing scams and our job is to filter the customer. For example we are supposed to ask the customer some questions and tell him to do tasks and to get money, he will get money for the tasks and our work is done. Then we forward the customer to someone else and they perform the rest of the scam. Is working like this Halal or Haram? Because what we tell the customers is right but we know in future they will be scammed.

I am looking for a professional answer to the following question. I have read books claiming that Allah is not a "God." One of the authors is famous. While technically analyzing the statements of the author, I need a certain level of knowledge in Arabic. **Question:** >If we translate the phrase of the Kalimat al-Tawhid ("La ilaha illa Allah") as "There is no God, only Allah," then, if Allah is definitively not a god, the particle illa (إِلَّا) should technically indicate an exception munqati' (disconnected exception) rather than muttasil (connected exception). My question is purely technical, not philosophical: If Allah is definitively not a God, then in the phrase Kalimat al-Tawhid, is the exception particle munqati' or muttasil? I seek an **authoritative** answer, as I couldn't find a definitive explanation anywhere online. I am aware that "Allah" is a proper noun, whereas "God" is not. Therefore, I understand that the name "Allah" cannot be translated as "God." However, this does not necessarily mean that "Allah" is definitively not a "God". --- Here is a quote from the author: >The Meaning Of The Word Of Unity The Word of Unity: La ilaha illallah, comprises the foundation of the Islamic faith. > >Taken literally, it means: There is no god, only Allah. > >If we evaluate its meaning… La means No, ilaha means god, i.e. there is no god. > >Note that, the first part of the word of unity is a denunciation: there is no god, there is no deity, after which it establishes the realityilla Allah, there is ONLY ALLAH! > >It is of paramount importance that we understand how big a mistake it would be to evaluate and translate this statement according to the colloquial language spoken by the Arab population today. > >Let us give an example. The Arabic statement: La rajulun illa Ali can be translated literally as: ‘There is no real man except/but Ali’ or ‘There is no man like Ali’ or ‘Among the men none are Ali’s alike’ (note that all of these statements denote there are in fact other men, but they are not like Ali). However, when the word illa is used in conjunction with the word ALLAH it does not mean ‘a god like Allah’, that is, it should not be understood as ‘there other gods, but none are like Allah’, as the very meaning denoted by the word ALLAH invalidates this supposition from the onset. > >Just as the auxiliary verb was (khaane), when used in conjunction with Allah, loses its general meaning and is taken as the present simple tense, when the word except (illa) appears next to the word Allah it also loses its general connotation and is taken to mean only. Here is an example: > >KhaanALLAhu gafurur rahiyma cannot be translated as ‘Allah was Ghafur and Rahim’as the qualities denoted by the Names of Allah cannot be subject to time; they are ever present and ever effective. > >Similarly, illa Allah cannot mean except Allah, which denotes the existence of others, but must be understood as only Allah! > >The compositional qualities of the One to which the word Allah refers, does not accept the existence of another, especially that beside itself. > >Hence, khaane, illa and all other expressions that denote time and (other) existence must be construed appropriate to the meaning of Allah when used in conjunction with it. Otherwise, it will inevitably result in the conception of a god beyond! > >Now examining the Word of Unity: There is no God, there is only Allah in light of this consideration, the first message that we are given is There is no god. Only after this definite denunciation we are told ILLA ALLAH. As explained above, because the word illa is used besides the word Allah the only correct construal of this statement can be ONLY ALLAH as opposed to except Allah or but Allah for there is no other being in existence to which Allah can be compared to or excluded from! Therefore, in order for the UNITY and ONENESS (non-duality) of the Islamic faith to be communicated correctly, the Word of Unity must be understood and translated accurately. > >Indeed, there is only Allah, and Allah is not a god to be deified, idolized or worshipped, as per the message ‘there is no god’! In fact, Allah isn’t even a god that is beyond man and creation! > >So, what is worship as opposed to servitude? > >To deify or worship something necessitates the existence of a god. That is, the very act of worshipping someone or something means there is a worshipper and one that is worshipped. This leads to duality. There is a you as an individual, and then there is your god who is beyond you, and you worship this god. Clearly, this is an interaction between two parties. We may say then, that worship, in this context, refers to the collection of all the activities that are done in respect to this earthly or heavenly (exterior) God.