There is a narration where a sahabi was given a list of the hypocrites of Madina, so the prophet (pbuh) knew of them but didn't do anything to them. Why did he do this if the punishment of apostasy is death?

My question is this. Did the Companions of the Prophet (ﷺ) or the first three generations of scholars (salaf) use the expression "lam yazal" in order to express the idea of the beginningless (eternal) existence of Allah? Did they use any other words and expressions for the same purpose (such as "Al-Awwal" or "As-Samad")? The fact is that most often I find discussion of this topic among later generations, after the appearance of philosophy and kalam in Muslim society. This question was raised by the Mu'tazilites, and later by the Ash'aris, but what about the very first Muslims? Looking for an answer to the question so far I've only found this: > (And He is Who created the heavens and the earth in six Days) six days > of the beginning of this world: each day the equivalent of one > thousand years, the first day being Sunday and the last Friday (and > His Throne) before the creation of the heavens and earth (was upon the > water) and **Allah was before the Throne and before water** … (Tanwîr > al-Miqbâs min Tafsîr Ibn 'Abbâs) However, I do not know whether this is authentic from ibn Abbas, and whether it refers to this topic or not. If I am not mistaken, it is indicated here that Ad-Darimi used this expression ("lam yazal"): https://books.google.ru/books?id=KiiPDwAAQBAJ&pg=PA76&lpg=PA76&dq=Allah+lam+yazal&source=bl&ots=v6MuZqftBl&sig=ACfU3U1XpnaV4yhT72S6Cn3rr97wLk2g0Q&hl=ru&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj60vC y8er-AhWxl4sKHX1CC40Q6AF6BAgjEAM#v=onepage&q=Allah%20lam%20yazal&f= false But examples and evidence were not provided.

From some websites, I have learned that women cannot get married by themselves and she must need the permission of their wali in marriage. Here, in a condition, her son will be her wali. So it can be seen that if a woman wants to marry on her own, she will need the permission of her own child. The son or any wali can annul her marrige Do woman don't have the right of marrige?

IslamWeb lists Qur'an 10:61 as a miracle of the Qur'an (*That matter is made up of sub-atomic particles (chapter 10, verse 61)*.). The verse is: > وَمَا تَكُونُ فِي شَأْنٍ وَمَا تَتْلُو مِنْهُ مِن قُرْآنٍ وَلَا تَعْمَلُونَ مِنْ عَمَلٍ إِلَّا كُنَّا عَلَيْكُمْ شُهُودًا إِذْ تُفِيضُونَ فِيهِ وَمَا يَعْزُبُ عَن رَّبِّكَ مِن **مِّثْقَالِ ذَرَّةٍ** فِي الْأَرْضِ وَلَا فِي السَّمَاءِ وَلَا أَصْغَرَ مِن ذَٰلِكَ وَلَا أَكْبَرَ إِلَّا فِي كِتَابٍ مُّبِينٍ

> And, [O Muhammad], you are not [engaged] in any matter or recite any of the Qur'an and you [people] do not do any deed except that We are witness over you when you are involved in it. And not absent from your Lord is any [part] of **an atom's weight** within the earth or within the heaven or [anything] smaller than that or greater but that it is in a clear register.
> Qur'an 10:61 ; other English translations are at Islam Awakened The relevant Arabic words are (translations from Wiktionary): - مثقال (miṯqāl) = weight (physical object) - ذرة (ḏarra) = atom; tiny particle, speck, mote Clearly the word ذرة in the Qur'an predates atomic theory , which began scientific development circa 1800. This leads me to my question: **Question**: How did "an atom's weight" come to be mentioned in translations of the Qur'an? Searching quran.com for ذرة reveals it is also mentioned in: - Qur'an 99:7-8 , *So whoever does an atom's weight of good will see it, And whoever does an atom's weight of evil will see it.*; - Qur'an 4:40 , *Allah does not do injustice, [even] as much as an atom's weight*; - Qur'an 34:3 , *Not absent from Him is an atom's weight within the heavens or within the earth or [what is] smaller than that or greater, except that it is in a clear register*; and - Qur'an 34:22 , *They do not possess an atom's weight [of ability] in the heavens or on the earth*. Searching sunnah.com for ذرة reveals it is also mentioned in: - Sahih al-Bukhari , which describes Qur'an 99:7-8 being revealed, although this translation says *weight of an atom (or a smallest ant)*; - Muwatta Malik , *A'isha said, 'Are you amazed? How many atoms' weights do you see in this grape?' " (referring to Sura 99 ayat 7).* There's probably other sources I have not found. Searching the Islam-critical site WikiIslam.com for atom did not yield anything relevant; they usually have pages for "debunking" claims of miracles in the Qur'an. (*Meta comment*: I proposed this as a draft question (here ), although I feel like I've mostly answered it in researching the topic. Thus, I'll post that as an answer below. Perhaps someone can give a better answer.)

I'll come straight to the point. As a child who's abused by her father mentally and physically I really really want to know what punishment he deserves, (or if he doesn't deserve punishment at all) I'm sorry if this makes you uncomfortable upon hearing that a daughter wants her father to get punished by Allah (s) but I don't think I can recover from the trauma he has given me. Its so suffocating being around him. I hate to the point where I instantly get annoyed when I see his face. So can I please have a proper answer regarding my question

I have a book that i borrowed from my school library about more than a year ago. It has pictures of humans. Do I throw away this book or give it back? I'm really not sure if i give it back or if this counts as stealing since I'm throwing out something haram.It has human drawings and i don't know if I'm sinful for giving it back.

Although on this site most people say no, I think it isn't. This is because in the hadith that is often quoted it says men are to not imitate women. But in this instance, in the modern day mostly men where chains and women wear necklaces. These are 2 different things. With this new information in mind, is it still haram?

Assalamualaikum, I actually know that a person's sins are started counting when he reaches puberty, but if someone dies before reaching puberty, is he/she in Jannah? And will I be held sinful for saying a child not reached puberty but died before reaching it in Jannah? In my case, I was thinking about daughter of Kobe Bryant who died in helicopter crash and I thought if she died before puberty, she is in Jannah but after I checked her age, she was way past puberty so I said in my mind she could not be in Jannah, although I didn't speak any of it or act on it, **will I still be sinful?**

We know that >Imam Malik Ibn Anas < al Shafi’i < Malik < Nafi < Ibn Umar < the Prophet as seeing the golden chain extended with three of the four imams is just extremely appealing to me. I don’t remember ever reading it in the Musnad Ahmad although I could have missed it, and i did not find anything using word searches. Is there any Hadith with this chain?

‏السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته جميعا They said, “We have been sent to a wicked people (15:58) — Ruwwad Center except the household of Lot; we will surely save them all (15:59) — Ruwwad Center Except his wife; We decreed that she is of those who remain behind”. (15:60) — Ruwwad Center because of the sign ‘ “” ‘ , we see that the speech belongs to the angels. In this context “decreed” means a collective decision? please give correct understanding brothers, I ask before you answer me, please read carefully. I know that the plural also means greatness. It's plural here with a capital letter, to indicate that it is from Allah, as I believe. and if not difficult give an example ‏جزاكم الله خيرا

This question is not on the morality of marrying or having intercourse with what we consider today a minor, as I have no issue with that especially when framed historically and geographically, rather my issue is that of the increased maternal mortality for adolescence and children. We are well aware that women also commonly gave birth around that age; > Ash-Shaafa‘i also said: In San‘aa’ I saw a grandmother who was twenty-one years old; she reached puberty at the age of nine and gave birth at the age of ten, and her daughter reached puberty at the age of nine and gave birth at the age of ten. As-Sunan al-Kubra by al-Bayhaqi (1/319) However today, we know that the maternal mortality rate for adolescent and child mothers is up to 2x larger in the case of 16-19 year olds and up to 4x larger in those younger. > mortality rates of children born to mothers aged <16 years, 16–17 years and 18–19 years at first birth were about 2–4 times, 1.5–2 times and 1.2–1.5 times higher, respectively, than among firstborn children of mothers aged 23–25 https://gh.bmj.com/content/7/5/e007681 This study was also conducted in sub-saharan Africa where we know that the age of puberty for women (8-13) is similar to the middle east now and during the prophetﷺ's time. The study also considers absolute mortality decreasing over time but says that the gradient between ages has remained the same so it is not related to past or new medical advances but rather the physical capability of the mother. As such, why was intercourse allowed in consideration of a young person's higher chance of mortality? This is not to argue the morality of the age specifically but rather the effects of child birth on those women - as Allah is all-knowing would he not have banned or suggested coitus interruptus (or any other method) till later in the wife's life? I don't mean that statement as a jab, of course, I was just wondering what the hikmah behind child marriages and young births was considering the risk involved. I've also heard of the average life expectancy argument however as far as I know, it was quite low due to a high infant mortality rate and that once an age threshold was reached, the life expectancy would increase to up to even 50+. Do correct me if I'm wrong though Jzk

Everytime you recite a letter from the quran you get a good deed according to this authentic hadith: > > Aishah r.a reported: Whoever recites a letter from Allah's Book, then he receives the reward from it, and the reward of ten the like of > it. I do not say that Alif Lam Mim is a letter, but Alif is a letter, > Lam is a letter and Mim is a letter > > (At-Tirmidi) What about the person who listens to the quran? Does he earn a good deed like the person who recites?

I recently heard this from a cleric : > Suppose if two friends had some disagreements or fight with each other. Now, to re-establish their friendship bond and unite them, you can separately lie to each of them. For example, if the two persons are A and B, then you can lie and say to A that B praises you very much and vice versa. By this, two friends will re-unite again and lying in this situation is not only just permissible but also a very good act. But I have also heard that it is not allowed to do bad deeds like stealing money with good intentions like giving the stolen money to charity. So, I want to know that under what conditions will doing a usually bad deed with good intention be permissible ? ( Assuming that what cleric said was not incompatible with Islam)

if the presidents of my country steal money and I make a revolution where people will die to destroy thieves in the government, will I be a sinner or vice versa the savior of the country?

I have heard there is a hadith about 73 sects from Ibn Majah. I want to know the authenticity of this hadeeth. Please give me some reasons to prove this hadeeth as sahih.

The word Kafir (infidel) is used many times in noble Qur'an. [\[Ref\]][1] such as: > يُرِيدُونَ أَن يُطْفِئُوا نُورَ اللَّـهِ بِأَفْوَاهِهِمْ وَيَأْبَى > اللَّـهُ إِلَّا أَن يُتِمَّ نُورَهُ وَلَوْ كَرِهَ الْكَافِرُونَ > >*Sahih international translation*: > They want to extinguish the light of Allah with their mouths, but > Allah refuses except to perfect His light, although the disbelievers > dislike it. [\[9:32\]][2] Can a comprehensive definition of "infidel" be derived using Qur'anic verses? In other words, Who is infidel (kafir) in the Qur'an point of view?

Based on some answers here on this website and on other websites and my basic knowledge of Islam I have come to the following speculative idea (Please correct me if the idea is wrong): Islam is an act of submission to God. It is a humbling experience for the muslim believer to submit to God, where the human should willingly submit his powers to god the creator of everything. These powers include finances, social status, body, and most importantly (for the sake of this question) mental power. This is why god refuses to provide decisive evidence (like a mathematical or a scientific proof) for his existence or for the truth of his messengers. Out of his pride he refuses to give decisive evidence, but out of his mercy he accepts to give only suggestive hints. If the human believes in him even despite of lack of decisive proofs, this is also when the worshiper was humble enough to submit his/her mind to god . I see evidence for this speculative idea in the following examples: 1) In the story of prophet Moses: When Egypt's Pharaoh tried to admit belief in god while drowning after seeing the miracle of sea splitting, his attempt to believe was rejected by God. 2) In one of the Prophet's sayings (PBUH) that people's believes after the sun rises from the west will no longer be accepted. Question 1: Is my speculative idea correct ? Question 2: In case the answer to question 1 is yes, then why does god provide miracles as evidence of him if belief using miracles as evidence will be rejected ?

I can only find one thing online, but I am not sure of it's validity as I can't find it on any of the traditional sunni reputable websites. >Abdul Malik ibn ‘Umayr reported: Umar ibn al-Khattab, may Allah be pleased with him, said, “Whoever employs a man among his loved ones or relatives, employing him for no other reason besides that, then he has betrayed Allah, His messenger, and the believers.” >عن عبد الملك بن عُمَير قال قال عمرُ بن الخطاب رضي الله عنه مَن اسْتعملَ رجلاً لِمَوَدَّة أو لِقَرابَةٍ لا يستعمِلُه إلاَّ لذلك فقد خانَ اللَّهَ وَرَسُولَهُ والمؤمِنينَ Source: (Musnad al-Fārūq 740)

As the title says. I see it so common (especially on Salafi websites). The verse about women needing to stay at home was a direct command to the Prophet's WIVES. If the verse said "all believing women", then it would make sense. But the verse does NOT say that at all. So why are people purposely misinterpreting the verse?

Salam, I have acne on my face and after doing wudu some spots burst. Today I was doing wudu and when drying I avoided the spot but it burst and I wasn’t sure whether my wudu was valid so I waited and wiped away the pus and blood. After that another one burst whilst doing wudu and I got fed up so I tried washing out the blood and only a very small amount was on the surface of it but it was dripping down. Is my wudu valid?