Okay, before jummah prayer in one of my local mosque, the khatib said all of us to avoid mobile and internet. He said that internet did more harm to Islam than it did any good. He also discouraged promoting Islam online and criticised the scholar who spread Islamic knowledge over internet. He mentioned that photos, videos are totally haram. Even talking over video call is haram too. He requested us too abandon our mobile in order to stay safe from internet. Now my question is, how logical is that? Are everything he said true? Is internet actually no use of Islam?

After a little research, I have seen a lot of Muslim critic targeting this hadith as a reference to Islam being racist. The hadith is as follows: > Jabir (Allah be pleased with him) reported: There came a slave and pledg- ed allegiance to Allah's Apostle ﷺ on migration; he (the Holy Prophet) did not know that he was a slave. Then there came his master and demanded him back, whereupon Allah's Apostle ﷺ said: Sell him to me. And he bought him for two black slaves, and he did not afterwards take allegiance from anyone until he had asked him whether he was a slave (or a free man) (Sahih Muslim ) An argument of such a critic is "Muhammad not only trades in slaves, but he deems the life of one slave pledging himself to Islam as MORE worthy than two African non-converts." What would be a general response to such an argument? As a matter of fact, an explanation of this hadith would be appreciated. -------------------------------- As an attempt to answering my own question, I was thinking of this: So, by default our prophet has already made it clear in the last sermon that a white isn't superior to a black nor is a non-Arab superior to an Arab or vice versa. So when our prophet decided to sell 2 black individuals for an individual who has pledged allegiance to the prophet, it wasn't because of race or that the black slaves were expendable but maybe for a certain reason where assuming the 2 black slaves were more valued to the slave master, than anything such as money or animal. It's also possible that the slave who pledged allegiance to our prophet could have been black. Hence bought him for 2 black non-muslims. At this point, I am only rationalizing on certain possibilities but not really getting anywhere. I just hope someone can have a better explanation than myself with proper evidence.

Assalamualaikum, recently, i have learned that backbiting is a major sin. I have doubts on it & some more issues added based on islam.Here they are: Doubt 1. If i backbit someone accidentally or intentionally, do i have to reach out to them even if it's awkward because they don't know me and they are out of my reach? Let me give you an example. My friend had talked about a neighbour living next to us- we both know him. She talked some things about him- though i wasnt sure she would talk bad things or so. Also, I had listened to her words so i bear the same sin as her but its unintentional and accident. What do i do? Also, even if jt is backbiting, Its awkward to seek forgiveness because he doesnt know us since we are strangers. He might get shocked and mom warned us not to talk or visit any strangers house, so it's not possible to ask forgiveness however. Am i forgiven if i just ask forgiveness from Allah?

Is it considered haram if you talk GOOD about someone behind their back? Or is backbiting haram in general?

I am aware that transgender identity is considered haram in Islam. However, some people choose to worship Allah but may struggle to fully submit to His wishes, resulting in compromises. In Islam, mixing genders is haram, and one shouldn't have friends of the opposite gender. So, should a transgender woman have female friends or male friends? I’m curious because of a story I heard in which Muhammad ﷺ forbade his wives from having contact with a feminine man because he sensed lust in his behavior and words. This implies that the rules about who can befriend whom are tied to sexual preferences rather than biological sex.

The Ash'arite أشعرية‎ or Asha'irah ٱلْأَشَاعِرَة are a known theoligcal sect of creed that refers by name to abu al-Hassan al-Asha'ary and most of its followers can be found among followers of the shafi'i and maliki school of fiqh. And they regard themselves as representatives of ahl-as-Sunnah wa Jma'ah beside other sects (of creed) such as the Maturidi's and the Salafi's. Now I've read somewhere -correct me if I'm wrong- that abu al-Hassan al-Asha'ari passed through three phases in his life. 1. A phase in which he was a follower of the creed of al-Mu'tazilah . 2. A phase in which he started debating al-Mu'tazilah based on 'ilm al-Kalam . 3. A phase in which he defended the creed of ahl as-Sunnah wal Jama'a. And as far as I know in each of these phases or at least in the last two he has compiled books defining his creed and theology. My question now is: Those scholars who claim to be 'Ashra'arites like the imams and scholars: - Among the Shafi'is: al-Juwayni, al-Ghazali, al-Bayhaqi, an-Nawawi, as-Suyuti, al-Fakhr a-Razi, ibn 'Abdassalaam, as-Subki, ibn 'Asakir ... - Among the Maliki's: al-Baqilani, abu Bakr ibn al-'Arabi - Among the Hanbali's: ibn al-Jawzi (at least wikipedia claims he was because of his works in ilm al-Kalam) - ... which of his creeds or phases did they follow? It could be great if your answer could include some details.

I am doing one sin long time (more than 10yrs Please include me in your duas). But now I have dua that I wish very very to accept by allah. So i give up all the sins and started doing good indeeds. But whenever I inteneted or tempted to do that sin, I think about that dua to be accepted and I will change my mind. So I afraid that instead of giving up sin for allaah. Is it permissible to avoid that sin for dua to be acceptance. I afraid that whether my niyyath is wrong or I should afraid of allah when I tempted to do that. Allah know the best.

Girl wanted to marry son, but the got forcefully married to the father without her consent, if she doesn't approve of the marriage and the father rapes her, can she then go to the islamic court (Ahle hadith) and get the marriage annulled and marry the son instead since it's an invalid marriage due to no consent of the girl, no guardian etc? Ps - I would like a view from the salafi approach, which Islamqa follows.

There have been roughly about 124,000 Prophets sent by Allah (swt) to mankind. Now all of these have been male. Is there a reason why none of them were female? I know that there are many women in Islam that have very high statuses and and loved very much by Allah (swt) but that goes besides my question.

This might be a bit weird, but I had to ask. Are women allowed to ask for fictional men in Jannah? I saw a previous question of a man asking, and all the responses were saying yes. However Allah created men and women different, and since men are going to get the Hoor al Ayn and women aren’t, I was wondering if us women could ask for the same thing?

If someone have mouth infection and apply medicine in mouth and throw that medicine outside than it will invalidate fast?

Im worried because I have been playing this. and also is Minecraft haram?

السلام عليكم ورحمة الله وبركاته I have been reading the *Tafsīr al-Ṭabarī*, and I stumbled upon a passage whose meaning I am not able to fully understand. > فأمّا اسْتِمْتاعُ الإنسِ بالجنِّ، فكان كما حدَّثنا القاسمُ، قال: ثنا > الحسينُ، قال: ثنى حجاجٌ، عن ابنِ جُريجٍ قولَه: ﴿رَبَّنَا ٱسْتَمْتَعَ > بَعْضُنَا بِبَعْضٍ﴾. قال: كان الرجلُ في الجاهليةِ يَنْزِلُ الأرضَ > فيقولُ: أَعوذُ بكبيرِ هذا الوادى. فذلك اسْتِمْتاعُهم، فاعْتَذَروا يومَ > القيامةِ In particular, I am interested in the intended meaning of "يَنْزِلُ الأرضَ" which I would translate as *[he would] descend to the ground*. In this context, is this a euphemism for *to prostrate*, meaning that men would supplicate or implore the jinn for protection? Or is the meaning more literal, and I have to imagine that men would enter the dwelling of the jinn in the ground, or something similar? (I was not able to find a figurative meaning for يَنْزِلُ الأرضَ in any dictionary.)

As the title says. I know no Arabic, but want to start with learning. I am mostly looking for recommended literary works or courses. God bless.

I am an American who recently converted. But I only know English and I have a Qur'an that is English only. I have memorized most of the everyday sayings in Arabic. But I was wondering if I have to learn Arabic to be perceived as a true Muslim to Allah, instead of a hypocrite. Should I just memorize enough Arabic to learn the Qur'an or can I still pray and read the Qur'an in English and that be okay?

There are some sources about tajweed rules and learning them is recommended. But what is tajweed? Is it a set of rules for only reading Quran or general for Arabic? I learned the Arabic alphabets and can read Quran. What does tajweed add to just knowing the alphabet? Is learning tajweed just a recommendation or a necessity?

Most of the males in my place wear head covering with a cap or turban. Also some of the masjid have baskets full of caps for those who come to prayer without it. They don't say you have to wear them in order to pray, but you get hard looks at times. I have researched this and found that it is not a part of sunnah, but instead local customs or tradition. If we cover or not, it doesn't make any difference. Also the male head is not considered awrah. Also, men who are in ihraam pray bareheaded, because they are not allowed to cover their heads whilst in ihraam. This is solely my opinion from the research I have done. In my research, I found: what Imam Shafi'i had to say about this...its mentioned below:- > Imam Shafi'i said, "The covering of the head during salah or otherwise is mubah. Whoever claims that it is mandub, his opinion is invalid because of the lack of evidence in the chain of transmission; unless people use logic as evidence and this is not valid in our Shariah" (sunnah.org ) I'm seeking a reference for this. Also, I would like to know umar ra had said something in regarding this subject?

Assalamu aliakum. I am 12 years old. I learned to recite the Quran when I was very young. But a few years back I stopped reciting quran and now I don't know how to read Arabic, I have forgotten. I don't want to tell my parents because I am ashamed and also they will be angry with me. Is there a website where I can learn to read Arabic for free? Please help Jazakallahu Khair

There seems to be an apparent contradiction in the Quran concerning the slaughter of animals for purposes of consumption. **Surah 5 Al-Ma'idah, Ayat 5** > Made lawful to you this day are At-Tayyibat [all kinds of Halal (lawful) foods, which Allah has made lawful (meat of slaughtered eatable animals, etc., milk products, fats, vegetables and fruits, etc.). The food (slaughtered cattle, eatable animals, etc.) of the people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians) is lawful to you and yours is lawful to them. The last sentence allows for the consumption of food slaughtered by people of the Scripture. **Surah 6 Al-An'am, Ayat 121-121** > Do not eat of (the animal) over which the name of Allah has not been pronounced (at the time of its slaughtering), for that is a transgression This sentence quite clearly disallows for the consumption of food over which the name of Allah was not pronounced at the time of slaughtering. This sentence contradicts the first. Jews and Christians do not follow the same practices of slaughter as muslims, in particular the utterance of the name of God/Allah is not a traditional practice. As an example, kosher meat is not required to be slaughtered under the mentioning of God's name, whether that God's name be Allah or Yahweh. Therefore, to allow the consumption of meat slaughtered by these non-muslims generally contradicts the strict command of not eating meat that has not been slaughtered under Allah's name. What is the justification or explanation for this apparent contradiction?

Assalamu alaikum. I am learning how to read Arrabic alphabets and how to read Quran. I'm slightly confused with something: In the first verse of Sura Al-Faatiha, the spelling suggests the following reading > Bismi Allahi alrahmani alraheemi. But the actual reading that I heard from many recitations are like > Bismi-lla(h)i-lrahmani-raheem. So the 'al' was connected really fast, almost indistinguishable to my ear. And the 'i' in the end of 'alraheemi' was omitted. ____ My second example is the third verse of Al-Faatiha, which looks to me like > Maliki yawmi aldiyni But in the recitations it was like > Maliki yawmi-diyn So again 'al' was connected really fast and 'i' in the end was omitted. ____ Please help me understand the correct way to read the suras (I guess the word is tajweed), or point me toward some references. Thank you very much.