As I and in all probability all of you know, lie or Kezb is counted as a major sin or in other word it is considered as Kabaer (majors) sin. But the question which I am looking for its answer is that what the reason(s) is that Islam declares this act as a major act? In other word, what is its negative point(s) which made it as a major sin and is there any hadith about its reason? *Note: both Shia and Sunni perspective would be appreciated.*

Salam is being sarcastic a form of lying? I was talking to my brother and he said something and I was like "oh sorry, my bad" in a sarcastic way, does that count as lying? And also when they know you are being sarcastic/joking is that okay?

I would like to ask, is Islam really a religion of peace? My question arises because, why in some of your Quranic verses does Allah encourage you to kill specially those who do not believe in Islam? Quran (2:191-193 ) And Fight for the cause of Allah? Quran (2:244 ) And your God will kill those who do not accept this religion. Quran (3:56 ) I am a Catholic so to speak, and I made this question as a part of my research paper. Since I do not know any Muslim, I thought of asking it here. I ask for your wisdom, that is all.

As a game developer, I've been offered a job involving a video game where players can purchase virtual points with real money, which cannot be exchanged for real money. The points are only used for playing games online, and free points are also given to all players daily. The game allows two players to bet their points, and the winner receives all the points/coins. I believe this is a form of gambling, but I'm uncertain.

According to the Qur'an or Hadith, is it permissible for a Muslim to lie in some circumstances? If so, under what circumstance may a Muslim lie?

**I am currently planning to launch a digital platform that connects sponsorship seekers (e.g., athletes, sports teams, influencers, social or educational events) with potential sponsors (brands). I want to ensure that my business model and income are 100% Halal according to Islamic Sharia.** In the sports industry, betting and gambling companies are major sponsors. I am considering a system with the following logic: By default, the platform will only show Halal/Ethical brands. However, I am thinking of adding a feature where a user (seeker) can manually "opt-in" or check a box to receive sponsorship offers from betting or gambling companies. If the user chooses to opt-in, the platform will facilitate the connection and I might earn a service fee or commission from that transaction. My specific concerns are: 1. As the developer and owner of the platform, would I be sinful for providing the infrastructure and "option" for Haram activities, even if the choice is made by the user? 2. Would the commission or service fee earned from a betting site sponsorship be considered Haram, even if the user explicitly requested to see those sponsors? 3. To discourage betting sites, if I include a clause in my Terms of Service (ToS) that any betting site registering under a false category will have its payment forfeited, can I keep that money as a penalty, or must it be donated to charity? I want to build a sustainable business but do not want to compromise on Sharia principles. What is the scholarly view on this "opt-in" model for prohibited industries?

I have heard a hadith which says that indeed, sadaqah/charity postpones/removes a coming adversity. I have also heard that we can offer voluntary prayer (like 2 nafl) as sadaqa (even though I have not been able to find an authentic reference from Quran or hadith). These days I am going through a lot of trials, one after the other (which encompasses monetary and valuables' loss, multiple incidents of theft, problems at work place, health issues). So I want to give charity, so that Allah, by His grace and mercy, removes upcoming difficulties and make it easy for me inshaAllah. The question is that since I am short of cash at the moment, can I offer nafl/voluntary prayers as sadaqa?

I have started to believe that Hellfire is going to end after thousands and thousands of years based on following report. ʿAbd ibn Humayd, who is among the most esteemed scholars of hadith, narrated in his well-known tafsir: He said: Sulaiman ibn Harb narrated to us, Hammad ibn Salamah narrated to us, from Thabit, from al-Hasan al-Basri, who said: ʿUmar said, __**“If the people of the Fire were to remain in the Fire for a period equal to the sand of ʿAlij, there would still be a day when they are brought out.”**__ Source: Al-Radd ʿalā man qāla bifanāʾ al-jannah wa al-nār Ibn Taymiyyah Pg 49-55 My question is what happens to disbeliving jinn and men who exit hellfire. Do they enter lowest levels of jannah as per some opinions or do they enter araf, the place between jannah and jahannum.

I'm confused whether the age of Ibn Abbas (May Allah be pleased on him) was 8 or 13 at time of the death of Muhammad (SAW). I've read a book which says, it is 8. But in different websites, it says, 13. In Wikipedia, they have failed to provide any references to support "13". However, even if they give, I don't care. Their references are not always reliable. In other website, they have also failed to provide references to support "13". So plz answer with references from the books of the reliable and renowned scholars so that they can be cited as reference or from such type website for example: Islamqa. I mean, I want a reliable references. Not from any website. That's why, I would be thankful if anyone give references from the books of scholars.

In Islamic practice, niyyah (intention) is a fundamental part of many acts of worship, such as prayer, fasting, Hajj, and zakat. However, there seems to be some variation in how intention is understood: Some scholars emphasize conscious and explicit intention before every act, while others say that the mere decision to perform the act at the proper time is sufficient, since Allah knows what is in the heart. Is it necessary to consciously formulate the niyyah before each act of worship, or is an internal, implicit awareness enough? For example: If a person wakes up for Fajr, performs wudu, and begins praying without explicitly stating the niyyah is the prayer valid? In fasting during Ramadan, is waking up for suhoor and abstaining from food enough to count as a valid fast, even if one forgets to explicitly think, “I am now fasting”?

Assalamualikum, Can I name my daughter "Syedzadi"? It means "Daughter of Syed" Please answer.

This is a question that is applicable to all religions. I read that all major religions have some ruling for covering the hair for women. In my experience in Islam it is more strict. In Islam, what is the reason for that?

First of all: what I mean here by “Jew” is nationality/race and not religion. The question of whether Jesus was a Jew therefore means whether Jesus was an Israeli, i.e. a descendant of Jacob/Israel. The focus here is not on whether Jesus was a Jew from a religious point of view, i.e. whether he was a follower of Judaism. Was Jesus a Jew at all? He had no Jewish father, he is not from Jewish sperm. According to the Bible, a child inherits the nationality from the father. Two examples: 1. The wife of Joseph was a Gentile (Egyptian), and with her he made two children, Ephraim and Manasseh. Although their mother was a Gentile, they are still called Israelis because their father was an Israeli. They inherited their father's nationality. 2. Moses allowed the men of Israel to take Gentile women, but he didn't allow them to take Gentile men for Israeli women. Since Jesus did not come out of Jewish sperm, he can't be a Jew by nationality. It's wrong to say that Jesus was a "half-Jew" because his mother was a Jew. In the Bible, there is no such thing like "half". You are what your father is. If your father is Italian and your mother is Spanish, then you are Italian. You are not half-italian and half-spanish. You are what your father is because out of his sperm you came. However, if someone wants to claim that the nationality goes from mother to child, then he must agree that Ephraim and Manasseh were not Israelis but Egyptians since their mother was Egyptian. He must also agree that Obed was not an Israeli but a Moabite since his mother Ruth was a Moabite. If he does not agree, then his position is hypocritical. I have opened this topic in other communities but they have all been closed. I am opening this topic here now because Jesus also plays a major role in Islam and the question of his nationality is certainly not an unimportant issue for Muslims. Since Jesus has no human father, he cannot biologically belong to any nationality. What does this mean now?

> Hadith "وعن أبي أمامة رضي الله عنه أن رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم > قال‏:‏ ‏"‏فضل العالم على العابد كفضلي على أدناكم‏"‏ ثم قال رسول الله > صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏:‏ ‏"‏إن الله وملائكته وأهل السماوات والأرض حتى > النملة في جحرها وحتى الحوت ليصلون على معلمي الناس الخير‏"‏ ‏(‏‏(‏رواه > الترمذي وقال‏:‏ حديث حسن‏.‏ ‏)‏‏)‏‏.‏" Abu Umamah (May Allah be > pleased with him) reported: The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) said, "The > superiority of the learned over the devout worshipper is like my > superiority over the most inferior amongst you (in good deeds)." He > went on to say, "Allah, His angels, the dwellers of the heaven and the > earth, and even the ant in its hole and the fish (in water) supplicate > in favour of those who teach people knowledge." > > [At-Tirmidhi 2685]. > > > > Riyad as-Salihin, 1387 In the end of the Hadith "**those who teach people knowledge**" is it referring to anyone who teaches people knowledge or A scholar from the context before. If it is referring to the scholar then who are the scholars according to this Hadith? Is it just someone who has knowledge about Deen or someone who is like a formal scholar as we understand today?

It is narrated in Ibn Ishaq 992: > اغزوا جميعا في سبيل الله، فقاتلوا من كفر بالله > >“fight everyone in the way of allah and kill those who disbelieve in allah“ I know Ibn Ishaq is generally a weak source, however I'd like to know just how weak this is. Does it reach the level of fabrication for example? Likewise, what is the context of the situation? If this is a general narration applicable for everyone, does it not contradict the fact we are only supposed to kill non-combatants and ask for Jizya beforehand?

The main focus for the position currently being offered is development and maintenance of our Customer Relationship Management (CRM) product. The CRM product forms the backbone for our online gaming customers. The CRM links together player account information, transactions (deposits/withdrawals), customer support, and APIs with 3rd party game providers. I am a software developer and I have been offered the following position in an online betting platform The high-level task list of the CRM team is to: develop new modules for our CRM product maintain and debug modules in the CRM product integrate with 3rd party APIs complete other C++ coding projects outside the CRM base as needed. The majority of EAS products are database-driven. Working knowledge of SQL querying and basic DB schema is a must: all applicants must know how to connect to, query, and fetch/process results from a database as well as update records in order to be eligible for this position. I thought since I'm not directly involved with the betting platform itself this might be okay, but since I'm not sure, I wanted to ask if it is halal or not?

There's a particular surah in my phone but am struggling to know the reciters of the surah because I collected the surah through xender from someone and I want to download the remaining surah. How can I do it?

Looking for an explanation for these 2 Sunni Hadiths in conjuction. - [ Whoever makes the Prophet's (PBUH) daughter mad makes him (PBUH) mad](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:3714) - [Abu Bakr made Fatima (SA) mad at Fadak](https://sunnah.com/bukhari:4240) Why does it not logically follow that Abu Bakr made the Prophet (PBUH) mad?

Al-salam alaikum warahmtullahi wabarakatuhu. As we all know, by consensus shaving the beard is Haram except for a small opinion within the Maliki madhab I think? My question is; is it permissible for one to shave his beard in case of coercion in the form of parents threatening to divorce over it (it is silly yes but there are some mentally unstable people like that) and/or the threat of being kicked out of those house into streets (when the threat is real, ie: when someone has already been kicked out for a short while for the reason of not shaving their beard.) JazakAllah khairan.

Assalamu alaikum. I have this problem - my family always celebrates New Year by gathering at my grandparents' house around the table and setting off fireworks. However, I've reached a dead end thinking about whether celebrating the New Year is haram. In the internet, some people write that it is, while others say it isn't. On the one hand, it's true that the New Year was established on January 1st by Julius Caesar in honor of some pagan god, and New Year is mainly celebrated by non-Muslims, so, in a way, one could say that by celebrating the New Year, you are imitating the disbelievers. But on the other hand, the modern New Year is a secular holiday, and its celebration has become a tradition among a huge number of Muslims, and it might be said that we celebrate it simply because of the start of a new year, we gather with family, talk, and don't do anything forbidden. P.S. I know definetely that celebration of Christmas is haram because by celebrating it, you are indirectly saying that Allah was born on December 25. But it's not a problem for me, because almost no one in my region celebrates Christmas, unlike the New Year...