Why are scholars using “in the cradle” as an example when discussing istibra?

I found the following on islamweb archives where istibra is being discussed which is relevant to when slavery and concubinage existed. Why are they using “someone in the cradle” as an example Isnt this abnormal or considered a path to harm or harm? I know the quran mentions iddah for ones who have not menstruated but i assumed its still talking about someone with physical capacity. I know that physical capacity is what permits intercourse according to islamic law but what about acts short of intercourse isnt capacity still important. “2. The Case of Young Girls Regarding a young girl who is too young for intercourse: Is istibra mandatory for her? There are two scholarly views (wajhan): The First View (Mandatory): It is obligatory. This is the apparent meaning of the Imam’s (Ahmad bin Hanbal) words in most narrations. He stated that she must undergo istibra even if she is "in the cradle," and physical contact with her is forbidden just as it is with an adult woman. Reasoning: Just as 'iddah (the waiting period after divorce/death) is mandatory for a child, istibra follows the same logic.” https://www.islamweb.net/ar/library/content/96/2479/%D8%A7%D9%84%D9%85%D9%88%D8%B6%D8%B9-%D8%A7%D9%84%D8%A3%D9%88%D9%84-%D8%A5%D8%B0%D8%A7-%D9%85%D9%84%D9%83-%D8%A3%D9%85%D8%A9-%D9%84%D8%A7-%D9%8A%D8%AD%D9%84-%D9%84%D9%87-%D9%88%D8%B7%D8%A6%D9%87%D8%A7?utm_source=chatgpt.com