Duplicate of [LDS](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/24058/22319) but from Catholic perspective Bible verses: Isaiah 43:10 >Before Me there was no God formed, And there will be none after Me. Isaiah 44:6 >'I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me. Isaiah 44:8 >Is there any God besides Me, Or is there any other Rock? I know of none. Isaiah 45:5 >I am Yahweh, and there is no other; Besides Me there is no God. Isaiah 45:14 >Surely, God is with you, and there is none else, No other God. Isaiah 45:18 >I am Yahweh, and there is none else. Isaiah 45:21 >Is it not I, Yahweh? And there is no other God besides Me, A righteous God and a Savior; There is none except Me. Isaiah 46:9 >I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is no one like Me From what I've been reading Catholic catechisms seem to sometimes align with LDS beliefs (at least first reading). CCC 460 >460 The Word became flesh to make us "partakers of the divine nature": "For this is why the Word became man, and the Son of God became the Son of man: so that man, by entering into communion with the Word and thus receiving divine sonship, might become a son of God." "**For the Son of God became man so that we might become God**." "The only-begotten Son of God, wanting to make us sharers in his divinity, assumed our nature, so that **he, made man, might make men gods**." I believe this quotes On the Incarnation, by Athanasius (pg 60) >He, indeed, assumed humanity that **we might become God**. He manifested Himself by means of a body in order that we might perceive the Mind of the unseen Father. He endured shame from men that we might inherit immortality Is immortality the only way man might be gods in Catholic tradition/belief or is there some other meaning/interpretation that I'm missing? There are other footnotes in the CCC but they don't seem to be working, is there another text that expounds on what this is saying?

Revelation 1:8 and 4:8 describe God as the one "*who was, and is, and is to come*", a phrase emphasizing His eternal nature and unchanging presence across time. In contrast, Revelation 17:8 speaks of the beast (often interpreted as representing the devil or a satanic figure), saying it "*was, and is not, and is to come,*" which appears to mimic God’s description but with a distorted twist. **What attribute of God is being emphasized through this triadic formula?** And how does the similar but corrupted version applied to the beast expose the devil's nature as unstable, temporal, or counterfeit? Is this a deliberate contrast showing God's immutability and sovereignty versus the devil's impermanence or false imitation of divine authority?

If you suddenly suffer from a serious illness, become disabled, or experience a drastic decline in your quality of life, or if someone close to you is killed, murdered, or tortured, should you blame God for it? Certainly, the answer cannot be that it is God's will. Nobody should have to endure suffering like that. How can we still believe in God who allows this to go on in our lives? How does "the entire book of Job" and every other Psalm of David contribute to the answering of this dilemma about the doctrinal topics of Providence and the Attributes of God?