What exegetical objections are raised against reading 1 Corinthians 8:6 as an "expansion" of the Shema?

In Trinitarian readings of 1 Corinthians 8:6, it is often argued (e.g., by Dr. James White ) that Paul intentionally echoes the Shema of Deuteronomy 6:4 and “expands” it by identifying: - “one God” with the Father - “one Lord (κύριος)” with Jesus Christ On this view, Paul is said to include Jesus within the unique divine identity of YHWH while maintaining Jewish monotheism. **My question is directed to Christians who hold a non‑Trinitarian or Unitarian view:** **What are the primary exegetical and hermeneutical objections to interpreting 1 Corinthians 8:6 as a deliberate expansion or reformulation of the Shema?** In particular: - What reasons are there for denying that Paul is intentionally alluding to Deuteronomy 6:4? - How should the distinction between “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ” be understood within first‑century Jewish monotheism? - Does Paul’s use of κύριος necessarily imply identification with YHWH, or can it be explained in functional or representative terms? Answers should focus on biblical, linguistic, and contextual considerations, rather than appeals to later creeds or post‑biblical theology.