Why didn’t the Prophet(ﷺ) order the Magians/Zoroastrians to be expelled from Arabia?

It’s well known in the time of the Prophet(ﷺ), Zoroastrians made up the Majority of Bahrain which is Morden day eastern Arabia. We have Hadiths of the Prophet ordering the expulsion of Jews and Christians and Polytheists. It has been narrated by 'Umar b. al-Khattib that he heard the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) say: I will expel the Jews and Christians from the Arabian Peninsula and will not leave any but Muslim. The Prophet (ﷺ) on his death-bed, gave three orders saying, "Expel the pagans from the Arabian Peninsula” But with the Magians/Zoroatrians there are no such Hadiths expect to the contrary. We have Hadiths where the Prophet collects Jizya from Bahrain and they stay there until Umar and he lets them stay and pay Jizya. Narrated `Amr bin Dinar: I was sitting with Jabir bin Zaid and Amr bin Aus, and Bjalla was narrating to them in 70 A.H. the year when Musab bin Az-Zubair was the leader of the pilgrims of Basra. We were sitting at the steps of Zamzam well and Bajala said, "I was the clerk of Juz bin Muawiya, Al-Ahnaf's paternal uncle. A letter came from Umar bin Al-Khattab one year before his death; and it was read:-- "Cancel every marriage contracted among the Magians between relatives of close kinship (marriages that are regarded illegal in Islam: a relative of this sort being called Dhu-Mahram.)" Umar did not take the Jizya from the Magian infidels till Abdur-Rahman bin Auf testified that Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) had taken the Jizya from the Magians of Hajar. So how do the scholars explain this? Are Magians the only ones among the religions allowed to reside in Arabia?