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Is it correct if we attribute fairness to scientists in this verse?

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In Surah 3, Ayah 18 we read: > شَهِدَ ٱللَّهُ أَنَّهُۥ لَآ إِلَـٰهَ إِلَّا هُوَ وَٱلْمَلَـٰٓئِكَةُ وَأُو۟لُوا۟ ٱلْعِلْمِ قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ لَآ إِلَـٰهَ إِلَّا هُوَ ٱلْعَزِيزُ ٱلْحَكِيمُ And almost any translation that I looked, attributes the قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ to Allah (SWT). I am not a native Arab speaker. But I'm learning it and it seems to me that attributing the قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ to وَأُو۟لُوا۟ ٱلْعِلْمِ is also possible syntactically. In other words, is it correct if we assume the وَأُو۟لُوا۟ ٱلْعِلْمِ قَآئِمًۢا بِٱلْقِسْطِ ۚ to be a noun phrase. **Who else also testifies to the oneness of Allah?** **The scientists who are fair (who are not arrogant)** Is this assumption correct grammatically?
Asked by Saeed Neamati (687 rep)
Feb 2, 2023, 02:54 AM
Last activity: Feb 2, 2023, 11:31 PM