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Is it "two hands" or "hands" in 38:75?

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Bismillah. Alhamdulillahi rabbil-'alamin was-Salatu was-Salam 'ala Sayyidil-Mursalin wa 'ala 'Alihi wa Sahbihi Ajma'in. ---------- enter image description here I was reading translations of verse 75 of Surat Sad (The Letter "Saad") (38) and noticed a small but very important difference. First, let me give *Sahih International* translation > *Sahih International* > > [ Allah ] said, "O Iblees, what prevented you from prostrating to that > which I created with **My hands?** Were you arrogant [then], or were > you [already] among the haughty?" Translations by *Yusuf Ali* and *Dr. Ghali* are using the same noun phrase **"My hands"**. However, translations by *Muhsin Khan*, *Pickthall* and *Shakir* are using noun phrase **"Both hands"** or **"Two hands"** which give the same meaning. Here is translation by *Muhsin Khan* > *Muhsin Khan* > > (Allah) said: "O Iblis (Satan)! What prevents you from prostrating > yourself to one whom I have created with **Both My Hands**. Are you > too proud (to fall prostrate to Adam) or are you one of the high > exalted?" and *Shakir* > *Shakir* > > He said: O Iblis! what prevented you that you should do obeisance to > him whom I created with **My two hands?** Are you proud or are you of > the exalted ones? The problem is **"My hands"** means more than one hands, which can be two or three or four or five ... . **"Both hands"** or **"Two hands"** means two hands. **Which translation is correct?** **What is the explanation that translators used the words they used?**
Asked by user31217
Sep 13, 2021, 03:32 AM
Last activity: Sep 15, 2021, 03:19 AM