Why could not Mary Magdalene touch the resurrected body of Jesus?

In [John 20:17](http://biblehub.com/john/20-17.htm) it is written that, when Jesus appears to Mary Magdalene after resurrection, He says to her: >Do not touch me, for I am not yet ascended to my Father However, Jesus does tell to other disciples to touch Him, after resurrection. For example, later on, in John 20:27, when Jesus appears to His disciples for a second time and Thomas (the Doubter) is with them, He says to Thomas: >Put your finger here; see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it into my side. Stop doubting and believe. Similarly, in [Luke 24:39](http://biblehub.com/luke/24-39.htm) it is written that post-resurrection Jesus said to His disciples: >See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have. Thus, I fail to understand why Jesus would negate Mary Magdalene to touch Him but not to His disciples. **How have theologians and the teachings of Catholic, Anglican, Orthodox or Protestant churches interpreted the words of Jesus to Mary Magdalene?** How is the fact that He had not yet ascended to the Father related to Mary not touching Jesus? Surely, once He was gone to the Father, it would be impossible to her for touching Jesus! One possible explanation is that Jesus did not have a physical body (e.g. [this](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/15598/did-jesus-transform-into-spirit-form-after-resurrection) or [this](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8368/was-jesus-resurrected-body-the-same-as-his-glorified-body-that-he-now-has-in-he) discussion). Personally, I do not believe this was the case, as it it at odd with the other texts (where Jesus says that "a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have"). Neither did [Aquinas](http://www.newadvent.org/summa/4054.htm) .