How does Reformed Theology reconcile Jesus' meaningful temptation and impeccability?

According to Reformed Theology (the predominant view or an overview of slight variations within), how is the impeccability of Jesus reconciled with the idea that his temptations were authentic to the point he can sympathize with our own (sinful) human temptations? There would seem to be a contradiction that if he was unable to sin then how was he legitimately tempted to sin? And yet we are told he has in [Hebrews 4:15](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=hebrews+4%3A15&version=ESV) , > For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, **but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.** [ESV] And James could be understood as saying it is our fallen heart that allows us to be tempted: > But each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own desire. ([James 1:14](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=James+1%3A14&version=ESV)) **If Jesus is sinless and cannot sin then in what way is his temptation comparable to our own?** ----- *"This is not a duplicate" Disclaimer:* While a good answer may discuss the exact nature of Jesus' temptation and impeccability, the focus of the question is in the context of their interaction with Hebrews 4:15 and how the tension between the two is resolved. *Assumptions:* - Reformed Protestant perspective. - Jesus is and was impeccable. - Impeccability is the inability to sin. - Jesus experienced temptation in a way that is meaningful to us. ----- Related: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/14809/24841 https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/14116/24841