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The Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil: Universal Access to Moral Understanding

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My question is this: Is Paul alluding to the tree of knowledge of good and evil in Romans 1 (and related passages) to support the idea of universal moral awareness? (no I am not arguing for humanism). Romans 1:20 declares: "For His invisible attributes, that is, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen since the creation of the world, being understood through what He has made. As a result, people are without excuse" (HCSB). While much of Romans 1 addresses the condemnation of sinful humanity and how God “delivered them over in the cravings of their hearts", the subjects of this statement are those "who by their unrighteousness suppress the true" (Romans 1:18). Verse 20 stands out with its emphatic declaration that people are without excuse. This suggests that God’s morality has been revealed to all humanity in some foundational way. Micah 6:8 seems to echo this truth: "Mankind, He has told you what is good and what it is the Lord requires of you: to act justly, to love faithfulness, and to walk humbly with your God." Although spoken directly to Judah, the wording implies something broader—that this truth applies to all of mankind. Genesis 2:9 introduces a crucial element: "The Lord God caused to grow out of the ground every tree pleasing in appearance and good for food, including the tree of life in the middle of the garden, as well as the tree of the knowledge of good and evil." I take the phrase "caused to grow" here to mean that God caused to exist, or that he made it. Genesis 3:22 compounds: "The LORD God said, "Since man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil, he must not reach out, take from the tree of life, eat, and live forever." Thus, eating from the tree is part of the fall. Gaining knowledge of good and evil is part of the fall. This raises the question: when humanity ate from the tree, did the tree of knowledge of good and evil impart in all of us some of understanding of good and evil? In other words, does every person—regardless of exposure to Scripture—carry an innate understanding of good derived from this event? This still implies that the knowledge of good and evil can only be known through God and/or His creation (*NOT HUMANLY DERIVED*). Paul adds another layer in Romans 3:20: “the knowledge of sin comes through the law.” This does not mean that good and evil were unknown before the Mosaic law, but rather that the law defined and revealed sin for what it is. Yet Romans 5:13 complicates matters: “In fact, sin was in the world before the law, but sin is not charged to a person’s account when there is no law.” The Jews had the law and could identify sin through it; the Gentiles did not, yet this implies that they seemed to know what was good. Scripture also makes clear that God’s concern extends to all people. Ezekiel 18:23 declares: “Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? This is the declaration of the Lord God. ‘Instead, don’t I take pleasure when he turns from his ways and lives?’” Similarly, in Jonah 3:10 God relented when Nineveh repented, and Ezekiel 18:32 reaffirms: “I take no pleasure in anyone’s death.” Thus, while the law was given to Israel to expose evil as sin, the implication remains that gentiles retained some knowledge of good. Abimelech provides an example, insisting, “I did this with a clean conscience and clean hands” (Genesis 20:5). If all humanity carries knowledge of good from the tree of knowledge of good and evil, then even those who have never heard the gospel still possess some measure of moral awareness. Thank you for your time. *Clarification* There seems to be a misunderstanding of my question. Please note that: 1. I am not a humanist. We would not know good or evil if it wast for God's perfect judgement or intervention. 2. I don't think knowing good and evil makes you righteous. Only God can do that through Jesus Christ. 3. Morality (good moral standing before God) exists whether you have faith in God or not. You may know that stealing is bad without being a believer. Again, knowing this does not make you righteous. 4. God can make something that has a good purpose, an man can corrupt it. For example, God has made rocks, and men can use those rocks to commit murder or the like. This does not mean that God made something evil, but that man corrupted something meant for good.
Asked by Hackerman (69 rep)
Sep 25, 2025, 06:20 AM
Last activity: Sep 27, 2025, 09:49 PM